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Llana [10]
3 years ago
10

Why do you switch the inequality sign when multiplying or dividing by a negative?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Andreas93 [3]3 years ago
5 0
If we multiply or divide both sides of an inequality by a negative number, you have to flip the inequality. Hope this helps :)
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"if n balls are distributed randomly into k urns, what is the probability that the last urn contains j balls?"
seraphim [82]

The answer relies on whether the balls are different or not. If they are not, which is almost certainly what is intended.


If they are, the perceptive is a bit different. Your expression gives the likelihood that a particular set of j balls goes into the last urn and the other n−j balls into the other urns. But there are (nj) different possible sets of j balls, and each of them the same probability of being the last insides of the last urn, so the total probability of completing up with exactly j balls in the last urn is if the balls are different.


See attached file for the answer.

3 0
3 years ago
A deck of cards with four suits; hearts, diamonds, spades, and clubs. you pick one card, put it back and thennpick another card.
Llana [10]

1. First, let us find the probability that the first card is a diamond.

Now, since we are given that there are four suits and there are, assumably, an equal number of cards in each suit, we can say that the probability of choosing a diamond card is 1/4. We can also write this out as such, where D = Diamond:

Pr(D) = no. of diamond cards / total number of cards

There are 52 cards in a deck, and 13 cards of each suit, thus:

Pr(D) = 13/52 = 1/4

2. Now we need to calculate the probability of not choosing a diamond as the second card.

In many cases, when given a problem that requires you to find the probability of something not happening, it may be easier to set it out as such:

Pr(A') = 1 - Pr(A)

ie. Pr(A not happening, or not A) = 1 - Pr(A happening, or A)

This works because the total probability is always 1 (100%), and it makes sense that to find the probability of A not happening, we take the total probability and subtract the probability of A actually happening.

Thus, given that we have already calculated that the probability of choosing a Diamond is 1/4, we can now set this out as such:

Pr(D') = 1 - Pr(D)

Pr(D') = 1 - 1/4

Pr(D') = 3/4

3. Now we come to the final step. To find the probability of something and then something else happening, we must multiply the two probabilities together. Thus, given that Pr(D) = 1/4 and Pr(D') = 3/4, we get:

Pr(D)*Pr(D') = (1/4)*(3/4)

= 3/16

Thus, the probability of choosing a diamond as the first card and then not choosing a diamond as the second card is 3/16.

7 0
3 years ago
Help someone plzzzzzzz
mafiozo [28]
The answer to the problem is
y=1/2x
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
10q - 30 is equivalent to _____.
mr_godi [17]

For this case we must find an expression equivalent to:

10q-30

We look for the factors of 10 and 30:

10: 1,2,5,10

30: 1,2,3,5,6,10,15,30

The greatest common factor of both numbers is 10.

Then, we can rewrite the expression as:

10 (q-3)

Answer:

10 (q-3)

5 0
3 years ago
If P = 2l + 2w, the formula to find w is .<br> If P is 30 units and l is 10 units, w is units.
Helen [10]

Answer:

<u>If P is 30 units and l is 10 units, w is 5 units</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Let's check the information given to resolve the question:

P = 2l + 2w

If P is 30 units and l is 10 units, w is units

2. Replacing with the values:

P = 2l + 2w

30 = 2 (10) + 2w

30 = 20 + 2w

-2w = 20 -30 (Subtracting 2w and - 30 to both sides)

-2w = - 10

2w = 10 (Multiplying by - 1 at both sides)

<u>w = 5 (Dividing by 2 at both sides)</u>

<u>If P is 30 units and l is 10 units, w is 5 units</u>

<u>Note: Same answer than question 13938258</u>

4 0
4 years ago
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