Answer:
all firms produce and sell a standardized or undifferentiated product
Explanation:
A perfectly competitive market is a market in which there are many companies that offer the same product, there are not entry barriers which makes it easy for an organization to enter or exit the market. Also, the companies are not able to influence the market and they are not able to control the conditions in it. According to this, the answer is that in a perfectly competitive market, all firms produce and sell a standardized or undifferentiated product.
The monthly mortgage payment including principal and interest is $1,936.25
Explanation:
PV = (1 - 0.20) × $325,000 = $260,000
r = 0.041 / 12
t = 15 * 12 = 180
![C = \frac{PV}{\frac{1- [\frac{1}{(1+r)^{t} } ] }{r}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=C%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7BPV%7D%7B%5Cfrac%7B1-%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%281%2Br%29%5E%7Bt%7D%20%7D%20%5D%20%7D%7Br%7D%7D)
C = $260,000 ÷ [1 - {1 / (1 + 0.041 / 12)∧180} / (0.041 / 12)]
C = $1,936.25
The monthly mortgage payment including principal and interest is $1,936.25
Suppose GetThere Airlines increases their ticket price to $200+10n = 10(20+n)$ dollars. Then the number of tickets they sell is $40,000-1000n = 1000(40-n)$ .<span> Therefore, their total revenue is
</span>
$$10(20+n)\cdot 1000(40-n) = 10000(20+n)(40-n) = 10000(800+20n-n^2).$$
This is maximized when $n=-\left(\frac{20}{2\cdot(-1)}\right)=10$ .<span> Therefore, they should charge </span><span>$200+10\cdot 10 = \boxed{300}$</span><span> dollars per ticket.</span>
Answer:
b. Will always be higher than the dividend paid per share
Explanation:
A firm pays dividend to it's stockholders based upon it's earnings.
Earnings per share (EPS) is expressed as:
= 
Dividend payout ratio on the other hand is expressed as:
= EPS (1 - b)
wherein, b = retention ratio which denotes the percentage of earnings retained by a firm i.e not distributed as dividends.
Thus, a firm's earnings per share would always be higher than the dividend paid by it per share.
Answer:
-$8,705
Explanation:
The computation of the Net present value is shown below
= Present value of all yearly cash inflows after applying discount factor + salvage value - initial investment
where,
The Initial investment is $110,000
All yearly cash flows would be
= Annual cost savings × PVIFA for 4 years at 12%
= $30,000 × 3.0373
= $91,119
Refer to the PVIFA table
And, the salvage value would be
= Salvage value × pvif for 4 years at 12%
= $16,000 × 0.636
= $10,176
The discount factor should be computed by
= 1 ÷ (1 + rate) ^ years
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $91,119 + $10,176 - $110,000
= -$8,705