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Oksanka [162]
4 years ago
12

company's perpetual preferred stock currently sells for $92.50 per share, and it pays an $8.00 annual dividend. If the company w

ere to sell a new preferred issue, it would incur a flotation cost of 5.00% of the issue price. What is the firm's cost of preferred stock? Note: when flotation costs are given as a percentage instead of in dollar terms, the denominator in the formula changes from (P-F) to P*(1-F). Hint: remember that for preferred stock the growth rate of the dividend is zero.
Business
1 answer:
andrew11 [14]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The firm's cost of preferred stock is  9.10%

Explanation:

The cost of preferred stock with the flotation of 5% would be the dividend payable by the preferred stock divided by the adjusted current market price(adjusted for flotation cost)

The dividend per year is $8

The adjusted price of the stock=$92.50*(1-f)

where f is the flotation cost in percentage terms i.e 5%

adjusted price of the stock is =$92.50*(1-5%)=$ 87.88  

Cost of preferred stock=$8/$87.88*100  = 9.10%

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What is the present value of the future cash flows, if you also could earn $110,000 per year rent on the property? The rent is p
dem82 [27]

Answer:

a. The present value of the sales price is $1.657 million.

b. No. This is because an investment in the property will result in a negative net present value (NPV) of $0.443 million.

c-1. The present value of the future cash flows is $2.122 million.

c-2. Yes. Yes. This is because an investment in the property will result in a positive net present value (NPV) of $0.022 million.

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore presented before answering the question as follows:

You can buy property today for $2.1 million and sell it in 6 years for $3.1 million. (You earn no rental income on the property.)

a. If the interest rate is 11%, what is the present value of the sales price? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 3 decimal places.)

b. Is the property investment attractive to you?

c-1. What is the present value of the future cash flows, if you also could earn $110,000 per year rent on the property? The rent is paid at the end of each year. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 3 decimal places.)

c-2. Is the property investment attractive to you now?

The explanation to the answers is now provided as follows:

a. If the interest rate is 11%, what is the present value of the sales price? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 3 decimal places.)

The present value of the sales price can be calculated using the simple present value formula as follows:

PV = FV / (1 + r)^n ……………………….. (1)

Where;

PV = Present value of the sales price = ?

FV = Future value or the sales price in 6 years = $3.1 million

r = interest rate = 11%, or 0.11

n = number of years = 6

Substitute the values into equation (1), we have:

PV = $3.1 / (1 + 0.11)^6

PV = $3.1 / 1.11^6

PV = $3.1 / 1.870414552161

PV = $1.65738659187525 million

Rounding to 3 decimal places, we have:

PV = $1.657 million

Therefore, the present value of the sales price is $1.657 million.

b. Is the property investment attractive to you?

No. This is because an investment in the property will result in a negative net present value (NPV) of $0.443 million.

The negative net present value (NPV) of $0.443 million is determined as follows:

NPV = Present value of the sales price - Acquisition cost = $1.657 million - $2.1 million = -$0.443 million

c-1. What is the present value of the future cash flows, if you also could earn $110,000 per year rent on the property? The rent is paid at the end of each year. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 3 decimal places.)

The present value of the future cash flows can be calculated using the following steps:

<u>Step 1: Calculation of the present value of the $110,000 per year rent</u>

Since the rent is paid at end of each year, this can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PVR = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (2)

Where;

PVR = Present value of yearly rent = ?

P = Annual rent =$110,000

r = interest rate = 11%, or 0.11

n = number of years = 6

Substitute the values into equation (2) to have:

PVR = $110,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.11))^6) / 0.11)

PVR = $110,000 * 4.23053785373826

PVR = $465,359.163911209

Converting to million and rounded to 3 decimal places, we have:

PVR = $0.465 million

<u>Step 2: Calculation of the present value of the future cash flows</u>

Present value of future cash flows = Present value sales price + Present value of annual rent ……. (3)

Where;

Present value sales price = $1.657 million, as already calculate in part a above

Present value of annual rent = PVR = $0.465 million

Substituting the values into equation (3), we have:

Present value of future cash flows = $1.657 million + $0.465 million = $2.122 million

Therefore, the present value of the future cash flows is $2.122 million.

c-2. Is the property investment attractive to you now?

Yes. This is because an investment in the property will result in a positive net present value (NPV) of $0.022 million.

The positive net present value (NPV) of $0.022 million is determined as follows:

NPV = Present value of tof the future cash flows - Acquisition cost = $2.122 million - $2.1 million = 0.0219999999999998 million

Converting to million and rounded to 3 decimal places, we have:

NPV = $0.022 million

6 0
3 years ago
A stock is currently priced at $76.48 per share. The stock paid its annual dividend of $4.32 per share last week. Dividends are
frutty [35]

Answer:

r = 0.10666841 or 10.666841% rounded off to 10.67%

Explanation:

Using the constant growth model of dividend discount model, we can calculate the price of the stock today. The DDM values a stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. The formula for price today under this model is,

P0 = D0* (1+g) / (r - g)

Where,

  • D0 * (1+g) is dividend expected for the next period
  • g is the growth rate
  • r is the required rate of return  

By plugging in the available values for P0, D0 and g, we can calculate the value of r to be,

76.48 = 4.32 * (1+0.0475)/ (r - 0.0475)

76.48 * (r - 0.0475) = 4.5252

 

76.48r - 3.6328 = 4.5252

76.48r = 4.5252 + 3.6328

r = 8.158 / 76.48

r = 0.10666841 or 10.666841% rounded off to 10.67%

3.6 / 40 = g

g = 0.09 or 9%

6 0
3 years ago
For the current year, Hodges Department Store reported the following data:
Ostrovityanka [42]

Using the lower-of-cost-or-market rule, what is the cost of goods sold for Hodges is: C. $989,020.

<h3>Cost of good sold</h3>

Using this formula

Cost of goods sold=Goods available for sale-Inventory balance

Where:

Goods available for sale=$1,074,450

Inventory balance=$85,430

Let plug in the formula

Cost of good sold=$1,074,450-$85,430

Cost of good sold=$989,020

Inconclusion Using the lower-of-cost-or-market rule, what is the cost of goods sold for Hodges is: C. $989,020.

Learn more about Cost of good sold here:brainly.com/question/24561653

5 0
3 years ago
Bus 322 when the organization makes a large-scale change, such as organizational restructuring, the change would be considered:
Charra [1.4K]
Renovating. Hope this helps you.....
7 0
4 years ago
In the economy of Panicia, the monetary base is $1,000. People hold a third of their money in the form of currency (and thus two
Margaret [11]

Answer:

The new money supply is $1,500

Explanation:

Before we proceed to answer the question according to the scenario painted, we need to make some preliminary calculations as follows;

If the monetary base deposit is $1000 and people hold 1/3 of their money, this means that the;

Reverse deposit ratio = 1/3

Currency deposit ratio = (cash in cash)/cash in deposit = (1/3)/(2/3) = 0.5

Thus mathematically,

money supply =  (currency deposit ratio + 1)/(Reserve deposit ratio + Currency deposit ratio)  × Monetary Base

Money Supply = (1+1)/(1+1/3) *  1000 = $1,500

5 0
4 years ago
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