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Makovka662 [10]

4 years ago

12

In its 20X3 financial statements, Cris Co. reported interest expense of $85,000 in its income statement and cash paid for intere

st of $68,000 in its cash flow statement. There was no prepaid interest or interest capitalization either at the beginning or end of 20X3. Accrued interest at December 31, 20X2, was $15,000. What amount should Cris report as accrued interest payable in its December 31, 20X3, balance sheet

1 answer:

Montano1993 [528]4 years ago

3 0

Answer:

$32,000

Explanation:

Calculation for the amount of accrued interest payable that should be reported

Using this formula

Accrued interest payable=Interest expenses- (Cash paid for interest -Accrued interest )

Let plug in the formula

Accrued interest payable=$85,000-($68,000-$15,000)

Accrued interest payable=$85,000-$53,000

Accrued interest payable=$32,000

Therefore the amount of accrued interest payable that should be reported will be $32,000

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3 years ago

The company plans to dissolve in two years. At the present time, dividends at each date are set equal to the cash flow of $18,00

gogolik [260]

Answer:

$321 per share.

Explanation:

Given that

Annual cash flows = $18,000

Number of shares outstanding = 100

Dividend per share = $180

Required rate of return = 8%

So by considering the above information, the present value of the share of a stock is

Present value of share = Dividend received × Present value of $1 received every year at the end of year 2 at 8%

= $180 × 1.7832

= $321 per share.

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3 years ago

We observe the following annualized yields on four Treasury securities: (75%)

Anon25 [30]

Answer:

Explanation:

1.

From the given information;

The spot rate for maturity at 0.5 year $(X_1) = 4\%/2 = 2\%$

The spot rate for maturity at 1 year is:

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1022.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

By solving for $X_2$ ;

$X_2$ = 2.253%

The spot rate for maturity at 1.5 years is:

$= \dfrac{25}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{25}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{1000 + 25}{(1+X_3)^3}=1000$

Solving for $X_3$

$X_3$ = 2.510%

The spot rate for maturity at 2 years is:

$= \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_3)^3} +\dfrac{1000+27.5}{(1+X_4)^4} =1000$

By solving for $X_4$ ;

$X_4$ = 2.770%

Recall that:

Coupon rate = yield to maturity for par bond.

Thus, the annual coupon rates are 4%, 4.5%, 5%, and 5.5% for 0.5, 1, 1.5, 2 years respectively.

2.

For n years, the price of n-bond is:

$= \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 1}{1+X_1}+ \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 2}{(1+X_2)^2}+... + \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ b}{(1+X_n)^n}$

Thus, for 2 years bond implies 4 periods;

∴

$= \dfrac{40}{1+0.02}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.02253)^2} + \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0252)^3}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0277)^4}$

= $1047.024

3.

Suppose there exist no-arbitrage, then the price is:

$= \dfrac{0}{(1+0.02)}+\dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02253)^2}$

= 956.4183

Since the market price < arbitrage price.

We then consider 0.5, 1-year bonds from the portfolio

Now;

weight 2 × 1000 + weight 2 × 22.5 = 1000

weight 2 × 1022.5 = 1000

weight 2 = 1022.5/1000

weight 2 = 0.976

weight 1 + weight 2 = 1

weight 1 = 1 - weight 2

weight 1 = 1 - 0.976

weight 1 = 0.022

The price of a 0.5-year bond will be:

$= \dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02\%)} \\ \\ =\mathbf{980.39}$

The price of a 1-year bond will be = 1000

Market value on the bond portfolio = 0.022 × price of 0.5 bond + 0.978 × price 1-year bond = 956.42

= 0.022 × 980.39 + 0.978 × 1000

= 956.42

So, to have arbitrage profit, the investor needs to purchase 1 unit of the 1-year zero-coupon bond as well as 0.022 units of the 0.5-year bond. Then sell 0.978 unit of the 1-year bond.

Then will he be able to have an arbitrage profit of $56.42

4.

The one-period ahead forward rates can be computed as follows:

Foward rate from 0 to 0.5 $X_1$ = 2%

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1

$(1+X_2)^2 = (1+X_1) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )$

$(1+0.0225)^2 = (1+0.02) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )$

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1 = 2.5%

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5

$(1+X_3)^3 = (1+X_2)^2 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )$

$(1+0.0251)^3 = (1+0.0225)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )$

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5 =3.021%

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2

$(1+X_4)^4 = (1+X_3)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )$

$(1+0.0277)^4 = (1+0.0251)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )$

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2 =3.021%

5.

The expected price of the bond if the hypothesis hold :

= $\dfrac{40}{1+ 0.03021}+ \dfrac{1000+40}{(1+0.03285)^2}$

$= \dfrac{40}{(1.03021)}+ \dfrac{1040}{(1.03285)^2}}$

= 1013.724254

= 1013.72

4 0

3 years ago

A technological improvement in producing good A would cause: a. a movement upward and to the right along the supply curve for A.

sveticcg [70]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": a shift to the right of the supply curve for A.

Explanation:

According to the supply law, when the quantity supplied of a good increase, so will the price for that good. This will also cause that the supply curve shifts to the right. Then, technological improvements are likely to boost production which implies manufacturing more products, thus, increasing supply.

So, <em>the introduction of technologies in the production of good A will shift the supply curve of A rightwards.</em>

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3 years ago

A laptop computer is purchased for $1500 . each year, its value is 80% of its value the year before. after how many years will t

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7 0

3 years ago