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Airida [17]
3 years ago
5

can someone check my answers? i'm not sure i have them all right. will fan and give a medal for help! attached below

Mathematics
1 answer:
vekshin13 years ago
8 0
I will go with yes .



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Prove the following DeMorgan's laws: if LaTeX: XX, LaTeX: AA and LaTeX: BB are sets and LaTeX: \{A_i: i\in I\} {Ai:i∈I} is a fam
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  • X-(A\cup B)=(X-A)\cap(X-B)

I'll assume the usual definition of set difference, X-A=\{x\in X,x\not\in A\}.

Let x\in X-(A\cup B). Then x\in X and x\not\in(A\cup B). If x\not\in(A\cup B), then x\not\in A and x\not\in B. This means x\in X,x\not\in A and x\in X,x\not\in B, so it follows that x\in(X-A)\cap(X-B). Hence X-(A\cup B)\subset(X-A)\cap(X-B).

Now let x\in(X-A)\cap(X-B). Then x\in X-A and x\in X-B. By definition of set difference, x\in X,x\not\in A and x\in X,x\not\in B. Since x\not A,x\not\in B, we have x\not\in(A\cup B), and so x\in X-(A\cup B). Hence (X-A)\cap(X-B)\subset X-(A\cup B).

The two sets are subsets of one another, so they must be equal.

  • X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right)=\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i)

The proof of this is the same as above, you just have to indicate that membership, of lack thereof, holds for all indices i\in I.

Proof of one direction for example:

Let x\in X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right). Then x\in X and x\not\in\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i, which in turn means x\not\in A_i for all i\in I. This means x\in X,x\not\in A_{i_1}, and x\in X,x\not\in A_{i_2}, and so on, where \{i_1,i_2,\ldots\}\subset I, for all i\in I. This means x\in X-A_{i_1}, and x\in X-A_{i_2}, and so on, so x\in\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i). Hence X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right)\subset\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i).

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(4,1,3)

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