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Montano1993 [528]
3 years ago
8

Solve x^2 - 6x + 63 = 0 in a + bi form

Mathematics
1 answer:
creativ13 [48]3 years ago
5 0
The square root of a negative number does not exist in the set of real numbers 
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Help me and explain
yan [13]

TOTAL IS $10


If the party costs $5 and each additional person is $1 and she invites 5 more 5 X 1 = 5


OR 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1

4 0
3 years ago
4.9cm cubed to mm cubed. Help me asap. google is a liar
Lunna [17]
It is 4900mm^3 because there are 1000mm^3 in one 1cm^3.
If you do 10^3 (10 mm) it gives you 1000mm^3.

Hope this helps.
8 0
3 years ago
Help y<-1/3x+1 y≤2x-3​
patriot [66]

Answer:

-(1/3)x+1>y

2x-3≥y

If x<12/7 then 2x-3≥y

and if x≥12/7 then -(1/3)x+1>y

3 0
3 years ago
Which relationship could be the one shown on the graph? I GIVE BRAINLIEST! PLS IM TIMED!!!!!!!!!!!!
zmey [24]

Answer:

Im kinda sure its a because

Step-by-step explanation:

through points<u> (2, 19)</u> A says Misaki had<u> </u><u>2 </u>identical pencils that weighed a total of <u>19 </u>grams, where x is the number of pencils and y is the total weight of the pencils.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If a single card is drawn from a standard 52-card deck, what is the probability that it is an ace or a spade?
klasskru [66]

A 52-card deck is made up of an equal number of diamonds, hearts, spades, and clubs. Because there are 4 suits, there is a 1/4 chance to draw one of them, in our case, spades.

There are 4 aces in a 52-card deck, so the chance of drawing one is 4/52, or 1/13.

The question asks for the probability of drawing an ace or a spade. Because it uses the word "or," we add the probabilities together. This is because there is a chance of drawing either of the cards; it doesn't have to meet both requirements to satisfy the statement.

However, if the question were to say "and," we would multiply the two probabilities.

Let's add 1/4 and 1/13. First, we can find a common denominator. We can use 52 because both fractions can multiply into it (since the ratio came from a deck of 52 cards as well).

\frac{1}{4} -- > \frac{13}{52}

\frac{1}{13} -- > \frac{4}{52}

Now we can add them together.

\frac{13}{52} + \frac{4}{52} = \frac{13+4}{52} = \frac{17}{52}

This cannot be simplified further, so the probability is 17 in 52, or 33%.

hope this helps!

7 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
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