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Korvikt [17]
3 years ago
6

A company with $70,000 in current assets and $50,000 in current liabilities pays a $1,000 current liability. As a result of this

transaction, the current ratio and working capital will__________ a. both increaseb. increase and remain the same, respectivelyc. remain the same and decrease, respectivelyd. both decrease
Business
1 answer:
Rufina [12.5K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Current assets = $70,000

Current liabilities = $50,000

Pays a current liability = $1,000

Current ratio(Prior) :

= Current assets ÷ Current liabilities

= $70,000 ÷ $50,000

= 1.40

Current ratio(After paying liability) :

= (Current assets - $1,000) ÷ (Current liabilities - $1,000)

= ($70,000 - $1,000) ÷ ($50,000 - $1,000)

= $69,000 ÷ $49,000

= 1.41

Therefore, there is an increase in current ratio.

Working capital(Prior):

= Current assets - Current liabilities

= $70,000 - $50,000

= $20,000

Working capital(After paying liability):

= (Current assets - $1,000) - (Current liabilities - $1,000)

= ($70,000 - $1,000) - ($50,000 - $1,000)

= $69,000 - $49,000

= $20,000

Therefore, there is no change in working capital.

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kotykmax [81]

Answer: An astute trader can make $ 41,666.66.

Explanation: You must first change

$ 1,000,000 per pounds, which would leave a total of £ 500,000. ($ 1,000,000 / 2.00 = £ 500,000;).

Secondly spend £ 500,000 to euros, obtaining € 600,000 (£ 500,000 x 1.20 = € 600,000;).

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Finally you must return in the opposite direction:

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4 0
3 years ago
You plan to retire in 30 years and you are investing $250 per month in the BMO Large-Cap Growth mutual fund. The fund has an ave
mr Goodwill [35]

Accumulated Balance is given by :

A=P\dfrac{(1+i)^n-1}{i}\times (1+i)

Here,

n = time period = 30×12 = 360.

i=\dfrac{13.45}{100}\times \dfrac{1}{12}=0.0112

P = principal price = $250.

Putting all given values in above equation, we get :

A=250\times \dfrac{(1+0.0112)^{360}-1}{0.0112}\times (1+0.0112)\\\\A=\$1221659.48

Hence, this is the required solution.

6 0
3 years ago
Custom Cars purchased $39,000 of fixed assets two years ago that are classified as 5-year MACRS property. The MACRS rates are 20
maw [93]

Answer:

The after-tax cash flow (after-tax salvage value) from the sale is $18,941.20

Explanation:

The computation of the after-tax cash flow is shown below:

= Purchase of fixed asset - depreciation charged - sale value of machine + profit on sale - tax rate

= $39,000 - ($39,000 × 20% + 32%) - $19,000 + $280 -  21%

= $39,000 - $20,280 - $19,000 + 280 - $58.80

= $18,720 + $280 - $58.80

= $18,941.20

The $18,720 reflect the Written down value of the fixed asset which come from

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A tuna in the ocean
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Which of the following best describes aggression?
Nastasia [14]
I'd say D, striking out verbally or physically.
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