1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
never [62]
3 years ago
9

A 6- foot roll of waxed paper costs $3.60. What is the price per inch?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Veseljchak [2.6K]3 years ago
5 0

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

20 cent per inch

You might be interested in
translate the words into a algebraic expression. "twenty-seven more than a number squared" "one less than three times a number"
Stella [2.4K]

Answer:

n^2+27 and 3n-1

Step-by-step explanation:

n is a number.

a number squared is n^2

27 more than a number squared is n^2+27

n is a number.

three times a number is 3 times n, or 3n

one less than that is 3n-1

Hope this answer helped! :)

3 0
3 years ago
3. The sum of three consecutive numbers<br> is 42. What are the numbers?
Zanzabum

Answer:

13 + 14 + 15

Step-by-step explanation:

n + (n + 1) + (n +2) =42

n + n + n + 1 + 2 = 42

3n + 3 = 42

(subtract 3 from both sides)

3n = 39

(divide both sides by 3)

n = 13

(solve)

n + (n + 1) + (n +2) =42

13 + (13 + 1) + (13 + 2) = 42

13 + (14) + (15) = 42

13, 14, 15

(Hope this helps, have a nice day!)

3 0
3 years ago
2 3/4 + 12 6/8 = answer
svet-max [94.6K]

Answer:

15 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which table describes the behavior of the graph of f(x) = 2x3 – 26x – 24?
In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

For x∈ {-∞,-3} y<0, below x-axis

x∈ {-3,-1} y>0, above x-axis

x∈ {-1,4} y<0, below x-axis

x∈ {4,∞} y>0, above x-axis

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=2x^{3}-26x-24

2x^{3}-26x-24=0

2x^{3}-26x-24=0\\2x^{3}-2x-24x-24=0\\2x(x^{2} -1)-24(x+1)=0\\2x(x+1)(x-1)-24(x+1)=0\\(x+1)(2x^{2} -2x-24)=0\\=> x+1=0 => x_{1}=-1\\

=> 2x^{2} -2x-24=0\\=>2(x^{2} -x-12)=0\\=> x^{2} -x-12=0\\=> x^{2} -4x+3x-12=0\\=> x(x-4)+3(x-4)=0\\=> (x-4)(x+3)=0\\

=> x-4=0\\=> x_{2}=4\\=> x+3=0\\=>x_{3}=-3\\

For x∈ {-∞,-3} y<0, below x-axis

x∈ {-3,-1} y>0, above x-axis

x∈ {-1,4} y<0, below x-axis

x∈ {4,∞} y>0, above x-axis



7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • How do you convert a mixed number into a improper fraction
    11·2 answers
  • How many 3-digit numbers can you write using only digits 1 and 7? (Of course, digits can repeat.) How many 3-digit numbers can y
    13·2 answers
  • What is the standard form of the equation for this circle?
    6·1 answer
  • How do I simplify 7(3x + 9=
    10·2 answers
  • Find X need help math
    7·1 answer
  • Simplify the ratio 4:26
    10·2 answers
  • The volume of a cuboid with squared base of side length 20 cm and its hight 10 cm =......litres....help???​
    14·1 answer
  • Graph the equation on the coordinate plane.<br><br><br><br> y = 4x
    13·1 answer
  • Find the volume of the rectangular prism.
    8·1 answer
  • What is the base (in inches) of a triangle with an area of 161 square inches and a height of 14 inches?
    7·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!