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3 years ago

Which letter of the alphabet is next in the series? JOTYD (A) I (B) J (C) K (D) L

Mathematics

2 answers:

amm18123 years ago

5 0

Answer:

(A) I

Step-by-step explanation:

With the numbers, I can correspond to a series of numbers to one of the 26 letters of the English language. Like the Roman numeral system, a number adds if the next one in the sequence is smaller, and vice versa if it is larger. Combining the structure of the Roman numerals with the numbers 1, 2, 5, 10, and 20 makes it so that you never have to use more than 3 numbers to express a letter.

kicyunya [14]3 years ago

4 0

Answer: it is (A)

Step-by-step explanation:

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In Exercises 40-43, for what value(s) of k, if any, will the systems have (a) no solution, (b) a unique solution, and (c) infini

svet-max [94.6K]

Answer:

If k = −1 then the system has no solutions.

If k = 2 then the system has infinitely many solutions.

The system cannot have unique solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the following system of equations

$x - 2y +3z = 2\\x + y + z = k\\2x - y + 4z = k^2$

The augmented matrix is

$\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\1&1&1&k\\2&-1&4&k^2\end{array}\right]$

The reduction of this matrix to row-echelon form is outlined below.

$R_2\rightarrow R_2-R_1$

$\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&k-2\\2&-1&4&k^2\end{array}\right]$

$R_3\rightarrow R_3-2R_1$

$\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&k-2\\0&3&-2&k^2-4\end{array}\right]$

$R_3\rightarrow R_3-R_2$

$\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&k-2\\0&0&0&k^2-k-2\end{array}\right]$

The last row determines, if there are solutions or not. To be consistent, we must have k such that

$k^2-k-2=0$

$\left(k+1\right)\left(k-2\right)=0\\k=-1,\:k=2$

Case k = −1:

$\left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&-1-2\\0&0&0&(-1)^2-(-1)-2\end{array}\right] \rightarrow \left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&-3\\0&0&0&-2\end{array}\right]$

If k = −1 then the last equation becomes 0 = −2 which is impossible.Therefore, the system has no solutions.

Case k = 2:

$\left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&2-2\\0&0&0&(2)^2-(2)-2\end{array}\right] \rightarrow \left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&0\\0&0&0&0\end{array}\right]$

This gives the infinite many solution.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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