Answer: 10.2
Step-by-step explanation: 64 x 0.16 = 10.24
There are several information's of immense importance in the problem. Based on these information's the answer to the question can be easily reached. The only thing that has to be kept in mind is the calculation part, otherwise it is a simple problem.
Now it is given that:
A large chocolate shake takes 8/9 of a pint of milk.
Then
Amount of milk required to make medium shake = (8/9) * (1/7) of a pint
= 8/63 of a pint
Then it can be said that for making a medium chocolate shake , 8/63 of a pint of milk is required. This is the simplest form of the fraction and it cannot be expressed as a mixed number since the denominator is higher than the numerator.
We can set up a proportion to find this
60 x
--- = ----
100 1200
then we cross multiply and divide to solve
60 times 1200 is 72000 divided by 100 is 720
now we know his employer pays 720 out of 1200
we subtract to find out how much he pays
1200-720 is 480
fred pays 480
I think its B. Because 396 divided by 3 equals 132 (there's 3 feet in a yard)