With the regards to the statement that if not for Americans participating in WWI, Prohibition would not happen, this statement is <u>false</u>.
<h3>Why is this statement false?</h3>
The movement to enact prohibition was already growing strongly before the First World War broke out.
In fact, before the U.S. joined the war, those in support of Prohibition had majorities in the two houses of Congress. WWI was merely an event that sped up the rate of prohibition and without it, Prohibition would have still happened at a later stage.
Find out more on Prohibition at brainly.com/question/3814594.
Green which or international meridian is the answer
D is the correct answer.
The British Army was the far superior force. The British Navy was the far superior force. Britain was also a manufacturing powerhouse.
But the British Army was fighting to preserve something while the Revolutionaries were fighting for their rights and to start something new.
This question is delightfully biased but it is true that the Americans, by and large, were more committed to the fight.
um i dont get the question
Answer:
The Spanish built missions so that they could convert Native Americans to Catholicism. The Spanish and Natives lived and worked in these missions. There were a set of rules, and if the Natives broke them, they would be punished.
Explanation:
