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arlik [135]
3 years ago
13

Assume India can produce either 15 bottles of milk or 50 cartons of eggs using all of its available resources, and Indonesia can

produce either 25 bottles of milk or 35 cartons of eggs using all of its available resources. After each country fully specializes in producing the good in which it has a comparative advantage, how many cartons of eggs will India produce
Business
1 answer:
diamong [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

50 cartons of eggs

Explanation:

The comparative advantage is a principle in which a country specializes in the production a good in which it has a lower opportunity cost than others.

                 Bottles of milk     cartons of eggs

India                  15                              50

Indonesia          25                             35

In this situation, the opportunity cost for India of producing 1 bottle of milk is producing 3.33 cartons of eggs. The opportunity cost for Indonesia of producing 1 bottle of milk is producing 1.4 cartons of eggs. This means that Indonesia has a lower opportunity cost and a comparative advantage in producing bottles of milk.

In the other part, the opportunity cost for India of producing 1 carton of eggs is producing 0.3 bottles of milk and the opportunity cost for Indonesia of producing 1 carton of eggs is producing 0.71 bottles of milk. This means that India has a lower opportunity cost and a comparative advantage in producing cartons of eggs.

According to this, India would specialize in producing eggs as it has a comparative advantage and the country will produce 50 cartons of eggs.

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MLB The company may build a $20M facility now to handle anticipated market demand for the next 10 years. Alternatively, the comp
densk [106]

Answer:

Alternative 1 has present worth of $20,000,000.00

Alternative 2  has present worth of $18,543,040.00  

Explanation:

The present of the first alternative is the cost of the building the facility now,year zero which is $20 million.The value can be validated as follows:

Year      Cash  flows         Discount factor  present worth

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0            $20,00,000       1/(1+10%)^0=1            $20,000,000

The PW of the second alternative:

Year      Cash  flows         Discount factor            present worth

                                                                              cash flow* discount factor

0            $10,000,000       1/(1+10%)^0=1                      $10,000,000

4             $8,000,000        1/(1+10%)^4=0.68301           $5,464,080

7             $6,000,000         1/(1+10%)^7=0.51316            $3,078,960

Present worth of second alternative                            $ 18,543,040

Hence alternative with PW is better as it has lower present worth of $ 18,543,040.00  

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Answer:

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