Answer and Explanation:
The journal entry is shown below:
Peter ($174,000 - ($66,000 ÷ 2)) $141,000
Chong ($162,000 - ($66,000 ÷ 2)) $129,000
To Cash $270,000
(Being the distribution should be recorded)
For this the capital accounts are debited as it reduced the stockholder equity and credited the cash as it also decreased the assets
If F my own idea, why do Businesses exist? to get that paperrrrr
Don't take this seriously, this is a joke.
Answer:
b. $3,000
Explanation:
According to the above information, the following data are given
Credit sales = $100,000
Uncollectible percentage = 3%
So, after the adjustment by using allowance method, Bad debt expense can be calculated as;
Bad debt expense = Credit sales × Uncollectible percentage
= $100,000 × 3%
= $3,000
Answer:
$80,500
Explanation:
Data provided as per the question
Capital asset = $23,000
Number of year = 5
Income tax rate = 30%
The computation of cash inflow from operations is as shown below:-
Before tax = capital asset × number of year
= $23,000 × 5
= $115,000
Cash inflow from operations = Before tax × (1 - Income tax rate)
= $115,000 × (1 - 0.3)
= $115,000 × 0.7
= $80,500
First one7,6,65,and last 3
