Amounts withheld from employee's earnings for the employee income tax is considered a liability by the employer until the government is paid
What is liability?
Liability means the obligation that one party owes another, whose settlement requires the indebted party to transfer cash or equivalent value of other benefits commensurate to the liability to the other party.
In this case, the employees owe the government income taxes, whereby the employees have discharged the obligation by having the employers deduct them from their earnings.
The onus is now on the employers to make payments in respect of the income taxes withheld to the tax authority, prior to which the taxes are treated as the employer's liability.
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Missing options:
(A) assets. (B) liabilities. (C) salary expense. (D) revenue.
An order comes in for two bean burritos and one crunchy taco the starter starts grilling the tortilla. Assembling is the best move. This is further explained below.
<h3>What is Assembling?</h3>
Generally, to assemble in one area for a shared objective.
In conclusion, The starter begins grilling the tortilla as an order comes in for two bean burritos and one crispy taco. It's smartest to band together.
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Answer:
$70
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Earnings per week = $500
Bonus received per year = $2,000
Paid vacation = 2 weeks
Paid holidays = 5
Now,
Since the workers have 2 weeks of vacation the fringe benefit will be calculated for 50 weeks
[as 1 year have 52 weeks, so 52 - 2 weeks = 50 weeks]
Now,
Bonus per week = $2,000 ÷ 50 weeks
= $40 per week
Vacation pay for the year = Earning per week × Total vacation per year
= $500 × 2 weeks = $1,000
Thus,
Vacation pay per week = $1,000 ÷ 50 weeks
= $20 per week
since there are 5 days working in a week
Holiday pay per day = $500 ÷ 5 days
= $100 per day
Thus,
Total holiday pay for a year = Holiday pay per day × total holidays per year
= $100 × 5
= $500
Therefore,
Holiday pay per week = $500 ÷ 50 weeks
= $10 per week
Hence,
Combined amount of accrual
= $40 + $20 + $10
= $70
Answer:
The balance in the Sinking Fund immediately after repayment of the loan will be $2,133.19
Explanation:
Hi, John will pay the loan by paying the yearly interest and the rest is going to go to the sinking fund, so, if he has $1,627.45 and the annual interest of the loan are $1,000, he will be depositing $627.45 into the sinking fund for ten years. Therefore, the future value of the annual deposits of the sinking can be found by using the following formula.
Where:
A = equal annual savings into the sinking fund (that is $627.45)
r = effective rate of the sinking fund (14%)
n = 10 years
Everything should look like this.
Now, this is the balance after 10 years, but remember that John has to pay the loan, which is $10,000 (not $11,000 because John pays the interest of the loan and then deposits the balance into the sinking fund). Therefore, the balance after repaying the loan is $12,133.19 - $10,000 = $2,133.19.
Best of luck.
The firm with a 20% Debt and 80% Equity has the lowest degree of leverage.
<h3>What is a
degree of leverage?</h3>
This means how much a firm operating income changes in response to a change in sales.
Because the Firm C has a low debt, this means its has the lowest degree of leverage when compared to others.
Therefore, the Option C is correct.
Missing options "90% Debt, 10% Equity
30% Debt, 70% Equity
20% Debt, 80% Equity
50% Debt, 50% Equity"
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