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viva [34]
3 years ago
13

Someone please help me!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
lesantik [10]3 years ago
5 0
A function has 1 input gives only one output
you cannot have
input 2 and get 4
then later
input 2 and get 6, that is not a function



basically x never repeats with a different y so

A. the -2 repeats with the 3 and 6
B. the 14 repeats with 1 and 2
C. no repeats
D. 8 repeats with 1 and -9

answer is C because the rest have some repeats
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Step-by-step explanation:

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GalinKa [24]
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To solve this, use the Pythagorean Theorem, a² + b² = c², where a and b are the legs of the right triangle, and c is the hypotenuse of the right triangle.
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7 0
3 years ago
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12 POINTS<br>Simplify i38. <br> i <br> −1 <br> −i <br> 1
Karolina [17]
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i^38 = (1)(1)i^2 = 1*(-1) = -1 (answer)
3 0
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Answer:

d = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

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