Answer:
Value of closing inventory = $ 28,125.00
Explanation:
To value inventory, we multiply the cost per equivalent unit of production (cost per EUP) by the the number of equivalent units(EUP) for each of the cost element.
So the value of the closing inventory, is determined as follows:
Value of inventory = cost per E.U.P × number of E.U.P
Material = $2.50 × 4,500 = 11,250.00
Labour and overhead= $3.75 × 4,500 = 16,875.00
Total amount of work in progress
= 11,250 + 16, 875
= $ 28,125.00
Answer:
8.78
Explanation:
The computation of the cash cycle is given below;
We know that
Cash cycle = Inventory conversion period + Receivables conversion period - Payables conversion period.
Here
1. Inventory conversion period = Avg. Inventory ÷ (COGS ÷365)
= (11,000) ÷ (395000 ÷ 365)
= 10.16
2. Receivables conversion period = Avg. Accounts Receivable ÷ (Credit Sales × 365)
= (27000/520000) × 365
= 18.95
3. Payables conversion period = Avg. Accounts Payable ÷ (Purchases × 365)
= (22000 ÷ 395000) × 365
= 20.33
Now the cash cycle is
= 10.16 + 18.95 - 20.33
= 8.78
Answer: $70,000
Explanation:
Accounts Receivable at the beginning of the year amounted to $16,000
During the year, $64,000 of credit sales were made to customers.
ending balance in Accounts Receivable amounted to $10,000, and uncollectible accounts expense amounted to $4,000,
The Amount to appear in the operating activities section of the cash flow statement is
$16,000+$64,000-$10,000= $70,000
Answer:
d. "Shoot the messenger" management exists, implying a lack of control
Explanation:
The approach of "shoot the messenger" implies that the management of a company tend to blame the bearer of bad news as if they are responsible for the bad occurrence.
This approach causes tension and lack of communication in the workplace as employees are afraid of communicating when something bad happens.
Management is supposed to look objectively at the situation, identify the party that is responsible for the failure, and work towards rectifying it.
This is the situation in the scenario where Matilda received an e-mail from an angry client about a certain product and she hesitated to report it to her manager because she knew that he had a tendency to unfairly blame people for things
Answer: An investment that matures in five years
Explanation:
Both investments may be of equal risks, but by virtue of having different maturity dates, they will not be priced the same.
This is because the discount rate (opportunity cost) will discount the maturity value more the longer the investment is such that the present value is lower.
4 year investment
= 1,000 / (1.068)^4
= $768.63
5 year investment
= 1,000 / (1.068)^5
= $719.69
The 5 year investment will have a lower present value and will be charged lower.
