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UNO [17]
3 years ago
11

Hey every one join my google class room the code is ftqn2mq join so i can help you with homework

Mathematics
2 answers:
tatiyna3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

oh oK than k s

Step-by-step explanation:

nasty-shy [4]3 years ago
4 0

sick, thanks. :))))))))))))))

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PLEASE HELP !
rewona [7]
<h3>Answer:  Choice D)  -$22</h3>

You'll lose on average $22 per roll.

====================================================

Explanation:

Normally there is a 1/6 chance to land on any given side of a standard die, but your friend has loaded the die in a way to make it have a 40% chance to land on "1" and an equal chance to land on anything else. Since there's a 40% chance to land on "1", this leaves 100% - 40% = 60% for everything else.  

Let's define two events

  • A = event of landing on "1".
  • B = event of landing on anything else (2 through 6).

So far we know that P(A) = 0.40 and P(B) = 0.60; I'm using the decimal form of each percentage.

The net value of event A, which I'll denote as V(A), is -100 since you pay $100 when event A occurs. So we'll write V(A) = -100. Also, we know that V(B) = 30 and this value is positive because you receive $30 if event B occurs.

To recap things so far, we have the following:

  • P(A) = 0.40
  • P(B) = 0.60
  • V(A) = -100
  • V(B) = 30

Multiply the corresponding probability and net value items together

  • P(A)*V(A) = 0.40*(-100) = -40
  • P(B)*V(B) = 0.60*30 = 18

Then add up those products:

-40+18 = -22

This is the expected value, and it represents the average amount of money you earn for each dice roll. So you'll lose on average about $22. Because the expected value is not zero, this means this game is not mathematically fair.

This does not mean that any single die roll you would lose $22; instead it means that if you played the game say 1000 or 10,000 times, then averaging out the wins and losses will get you close to a loss of $22.

7 0
2 years ago
Can someone please solve these problems for me if you could do step by step that would rlly help me this is due Feb 14, 2021 ple
dsp73

Answer:

7. about 41.8 degrees or 0.72972 radians (used sin^{-1} (\frac{4}{6} ), because the given leg is opposite from the angle)

8. about 50.4 degrees or 0.87946 radians (used tan^{-1} (\frac{29}{24} ))

9. about 12.8 degrees or 0.224 radians (used sin^{-1} (\frac{12}{54} ))

10. about 51.3 degrees or 0.8957 radians (used cos^{-1} (\frac{25}{40} ), given leg is opposite from angle)

Step-by-step explanation:

S.O.H.--C.A.H.--T.O.A

sine = opposite (to angle)/hypotenuse

cosine = adjacent (to angle)/hypotenuse

tangent = opposite (to angle)/adjacent (to angle)

I didn't know if it was degrees or radians, so I did both! I saw you on the film question asking for help, so I just wanted to do so! Have a great day!

7 0
2 years ago
a certain pharmaceutical company know that, on average 4% of a certain type of pill has an ingredient that is below the minimum
FinnZ [79.3K]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0% probability that fewer that 5 in a sample of 20 pills will be acceptable.

For each pill, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is acceptable, or it is not. The probability of a pill being acceptable is independent of any other pill, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

  • The sample has 20 pills, hence n = 20.
  • 100 - 4 = 96% are acceptable, hence p = 0.96

The probability that <u>fewer that 5 in a sample of 20 pills</u> will be acceptable is:

P(X < 5) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{20,0}.(0.96)^{0}.(0.04)^{20} = 0

P(X = 1) = C_{20,1}.(0.96)^{1}.(0.04)^{19} = 0

P(X = 2) = C_{20,2}.(0.96)^{2}.(0.04)^{18} = 0

P(X = 3) = C_{20,3}.(0.96)^{3}.(0.04)^{17} = 0

P(X = 4) = C_{20,4}.(0.96)^{4}.(0.04)^{16} = 0

0% probability that fewer that 5 in a sample of 20 pills will be acceptable.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377

8 0
2 years ago
24 students in a class took an alegebra test. If 18 passed, what precentage passed.
Sever21 [200]

Answer:

75%

Step-by-step explanation:

What percent of 24 is 18?

24x = 18

x = 18/24 = 3/4 = 0.75 = 75% passed

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Liam sarah and Emily share some money in the ratio 2:3:7 Emily got £80 more than liam how much money did sarah get
sergey [27]
Sarah got £48, Liam got £32, and Emily got £112
3 0
3 years ago
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