So what this is is
many words
assuming year 0 is 2017
so compound first thing till 2020, take out 30000
the remaining is copmpounded til 2022, take out 50000
remaining is compounded for 1 more year and that is equal to 80000
so from 2017 to 2020, that is 5 years
from 2020 to 2022 is 2 years
from 2022 to 2023 is 1 year
work backwards
A=P(r+1)^t
last one
A=80000
P=?
r=0.08
t=1 year
80000=P(1.08)^1
divide both sides by 1.08
I would leave in fraction
20000000/27=P
now that is the remaining after paying 50000, after 2 years of compounding
so
50000+(2000000/27)=P(1.08)^2
solve using math
about
106374=P
now reverse back
5 years
paid 30000
30000+106374=P(1.08)^5
solve using math
92813.526=P
round
$92813.53
put $92813.53 in the fund
None of the above. The first two are slope-intercept, whereas the third one isn't a form.
<span>Look at the definition of multiplicative inverse. If two numbers are multiplicative inverses of each other, then by definition, their product will be equal to 1. And 1 is a positive number. If both numbers being multiplied are positive, then the result is positive. And of both numbers being multiplied are negative, then the result is still positive. But if one number is positive and the other is negative, then the result is negative. So if you want a positive result, then both numbers you're multiplying have to have the same sign. And since we want a result of 1 for multiplicative inverses and since 1 is positive, then the numbers being multiplied have to have the same sign.</span>