A) The probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.
B) The probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.
C) The probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.
<h2 /><h2><u>How to determine probabilities</u></h2>
Since a miniature golf player sinks a hole-in-one about 12% of the time on any given hole and is going to play 8 games at 18 holes each, to determine A) what is the probability the golfer got zero or one hole -in-one during a single game, B) what is the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game, and C) what is the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game , the following calculations must be performed:
- 1 - 0.12 = 0.88
- 0.88 ^ 17 = 0.1138
- 0.88 ^ 18 = 0.1001
Therefore, the probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.
- 0.88 ^ 18 - 0.12 ^ 2 = X
- 0.0857 = X
Therefore, the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.
- 0.12 ^ 6 x 0.88 ^ 12 = X
- 0.0000000001 = X
Therefore, the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.
Learn more about probabilities in brainly.com/question/25273534
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
If the area of a triangle is 150cm^2, the formula would look like:
150=0.5b*h
So, if we were to solve for the base in terms of h, we'd simply divide both sides by 0.5b getting:
(150)/(0.5b)=h
which simplifies to
h=300b
Yes, 4/8 and 1/2 are equivalent, because 4/8 reduced to simplest form is 1/2.
