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Oksana_A [137]
3 years ago
12

If sales units exceeds the break-even point in units, the firm will experience

Business
1 answer:
BigorU [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

an operating profit

Explanation:

\frac{Fixed\:Cost}{Contribution \:Margin \:Ratio} = Break\: Even\: Point_{dollars}

Where:

\frac{Contribution \: Margin}{Sales \: Revenue} = Contribution \: Margin \: Ratio

Sales \: Revenue - Variable \: Cost = Contribution \: Margin

The sales, after variable cost, generate a contribution, this contribution in relationship with sales can be measure as a ratio.

And this ratio applied to fixed cost get us the sales level at which the company can aford both, their fixed cost and variable cost.

<u>Resuming:</u>

The break even is the sales level which generate enough contribution to pay up the fixed cost and the variable cost generated for the sales.

If sales are higher than BEP then it will pay their variable and fixed cost and also make a profit.

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3 years ago
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If a firm sells a prestige product, what kind of relationship between price and quantity demanded should it expect?.
solmaris [256]

For a firm that sells a prestige product, the relationship between price and quantity demanded is a <u>positive direct relationship</u>.

<h3>Why is the relationship between demand and price of prestige products direct?</h3>

The relationship between the demand and price of prestige products is direct because prestige products tend to sell better at high prices than at low prices.

And when the quantity demanded increases, the price tends to increase.

An example of a prestige product is an old car.

Thus, for a firm that sells a prestige product, the relationship between price and quantity demanded is a <u>positive direct relationship</u>.

Learn more about the demand for prestige products at brainly.com/question/6374886

3 0
2 years ago
Sarasota Company has a balance of $2,200 in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts before adjustment. The estimated uncollectibles unde
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

Debit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $2900

Credit : Accounts receivables = $2900

Explanation:

An account for allowance for doubtful debts is a contra account created, predicting that certain debtors will not be able to pay for the goods and services they purchased. This may be based on historical experiences. Doubtful debts aren’t officially uncollectible, it is simply an estimation made, but bad debts are, where you have officially written off a certain accounts receivable as uncollectible.

An allowance for doubtful debts is recorded in the balance sheet, directly under accounts receivables. Bad debts are recorded as an expense in the income statement. When there is an allowance for doubtful debts, the bad debts account is debited and the allowance for doubtful debts account is credited.

According to the question, the balance was $2,200 (Cr) in the allowance for doubtful debts account. The initial expected amount for allowance for doubtful debts was $5100 (Cr). This means that the difference was the amount that was declared as uncollectible and officially written off i.e. bad debts. Thus $2900 ($5100 -$2200) would have been confirmed as bad debts.

The entry to record the above transaction is:

Debit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $2900

Credit : Accounts receivables = $2900

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is not a product cost under variable costing?
irakobra [83]
There are no options
3 0
2 years ago
Statement Of Owner's Equity Jay Pembroke started a business in April. Prepare a Statement of Owner's Equity using the following
Dovator [93]

Answer:

$2,433

Explanation:

Net Income = Sales - Expenses

where,

Sales = $3,033

and

Expenses = $600

therefore,

Net Income = $3,033 - $600 = $2,433

3 0
3 years ago
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