Multiply 200 by .15, since 15% is .15 as a decimal. 200 x .15 = 30. This means that his health care rate will increase by $30 next year.
Answer:
The number of people needed is 
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question we are told that
The population proportion is 
The margin of error is 
From the question we are told the confidence level is 90% , hence the level of significance is
=> 
Generally from the normal distribution table the critical value of 
is
Generally the sample size is mathematically represented as
![n =[ \frac{Z_{\frac{\alpha }{2} }}{E} ]^2 * p(1-p)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=n%20%3D%5B%20%5Cfrac%7BZ_%7B%5Cfrac%7B%5Calpha%20%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7D%7BE%7D%20%5D%5E2%20%2A%20p%281-p%29)
=> ![n =[ \frac{1.645 }{0.03} ]^2 * 0.65(1-0.65)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=n%20%3D%5B%20%5Cfrac%7B1.645%20%7D%7B0.03%7D%20%5D%5E2%20%2A%200.65%281-0.65%29)
=>
4028 mi 2< M is the expression you were looking for i think
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
Find out more about ordinary annuity on:brainly.com/question/13369387
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