Answer:
behavioral
Explanation:
Behavioral tolerance is a term in psychology often used to illustrates the drop in the effectiveness of drug usage in influencing the actual user, following a constant usage of the drug.
Hence, in this certain situation, and given that Lowell has found out that he needs more heroin to feel "alright" the correct answer is that this is an example of BEHAVIORAL tolerance.
Answer:
(a) What is the net present value of this potential investment?
Net present value of Investment is $(3,903)
(b) Should you invest in this machine?
We should not invest in this investment because Net present value of this investment is negative by discounting Minimum acceptable rate of return.
Explanation:
Present Values:
Revenue $144,146
O&M Cost ($48,049)
Initial Investment <u>$(100,000)</u>
Net Present value $(3,903)
Working :
Present Value Calculation = P x ( (1- ( 1 + r )^-10) / r
Revenue = $21,000 x ( (1- ( 1 + 0.075 )^-10) / 0.075 = 144,146
O&M Costs = $7,000 x ( (1- ( 1 + 0.075 )^-10) / 0.075 = 48,049
Answer:
B
Explanation:
- The Semiannually total interest Payable will be calculate as
30*2 = 60 Semiannual Times Payments
- Interest Payments
$9,000,000*8%/2=$360,000
- So the Total payments will be paid semiannually 60 times $360,000 with the principle amount $9,000,000
Answer:
In general, the higher the total asset turnover and the lower the capital intensity ratio, the more efficient the overall asset management of the firm will be.
Explanation:
Asset Turnover = Net Sales / Total Asset
Capital Intensity = Total Asset / Net Sales
According to the above formulas most efficient situation will be to increase the asset turnover and decrease the capital intesity ratio because they are reciprocal to each other, so thses will behave inversly with each other. Higher turnover means the higher sales using total asset and lower capital intensity ratio means asset are lower timesto the net sales which is an efficient use of asset.
Answer:
a1. 60 days
a2.Remittance = $40,500
b1- 1 % discount offered
b-2, 10days
b-3 =$40,095 ± 0.1
c-1 Implicit interest $405 ± 0.1%
c-2 Days' credit days=50 days
Explanation:
a1. 60 days
a2.0rder for 300 units of inventory at a unit price of $135
Remittance = 300($135)
Remittance = $40,500
b- 1 % discount offered
b-2, 10days
b-3 Remittance (1- 0.01) $40,500
(0.99)$40,500
Remittance =$40,095 ± 0.1%
c-1 Implicit interest $40,500- $40,095
Implicit interest $405 ± 0.1%
c-2
Days' credit days 60-10
Days' credit days=50 days