Answer:
1.6%
Step-by-step explanation:
2376/2338= 1.016
1.016-1 = .016 * 100
1.6%
hope it helps :)
What you have to do is multiply each of the sides so you have 80, 60, and 48.
Add those up to get 188. Then multiply this by 2 and you get 376.
Your answer is D. (376)
P.S if this helped you out, please give me brainliest if you don't mind. I am only a few more from leveling up :D
Answer:
A perfect cube
Step-by-step explanation:
27 is a perfect cube of 3
We're looking for the volume, since it's trying to find out the cost for filling the entire box.
We have our length, width, and height.
8, 6, and 1.
We're multiplying 8, 6 1, and 0.3 since it is $0.3 per sq ft,
Our equation is:
0.3 (8x6x1) = x
8 x 6 x 1 = 48.
48 x 0.3 is 14.4
$14.4 is your answer
Hope this helps!
Answer:
The probability that at least 1 defective card is in the sample is 
Step-by-step explanation:
Here
N = 140
and n = 20
We will use the below given formula
P(at least 1 defective) = 1 - P( 0 defectives)
P( 0 defectives) =
