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meriva
3 years ago
9

Process costing typically uses only one Work in Process Inventory account, while job order costing typically uses a separate Wor

k in Process Inventory account for each department.
a. True
b. False
Business
1 answer:
Tasya [4]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

False.

Explanation:

Process costing typically uses only one Work in Process Inventory account, while job order costing typically uses a separate Work in Process Inventory account for each department. This is simply a false statement.

Process costing can be defined as a cost accounting method used for assigning manufacturing or production costs to the units of goods produced by a business firm over a specific period of time. It is mostly used by firms that produce a large quantity of homogeneous or similar products on a continuous basis. Process costing typically uses more than one Work in Process Inventory account because costing at each stage of production or manufacturing process.

Job order costing can be defined as a cost accounting method used to determine and accumulation of the cost of manufacturing each product or a single unit of production. Job costing order typically uses only one Work in Process Inventory account for each product.

<em>In conclusion, Process costing typically uses a separate Work in Process Inventory account for each department while job order costing typically uses only one Work in Process Inventory account for each product. </em>

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In most companies, portfolio management is typically done at the sbu or ___________ level of the firm.
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The correct option is c. In most companies, portfolio management is typically done at the SBU or product line level of the firm.

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1 year ago
Artur, who has a disability, is an employee of banquet &amp; event facilities &amp; services, inc. after the installation of new
ludmilkaskok [199]

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3 years ago
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Answer:

$1,419,327.22

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The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity is used as follows:

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Where,

FV = Future value of the amount after 3 years = ?

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r = Semi annual interest rate = 4% ÷  2 = 2%, 0.02

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Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $225,000 × {[(1 + 0.02)^6 - 1] ÷ 0.02} =  $1,419,327.22

Therefore, Harlan Corporation will have $1,419,327.22 at the end of three years.

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