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gavmur [86]
3 years ago
8

A ________ is best described as a voluntary arrangement between firms that involves the sharing of knowledge, resources, and cap

abilities with the intent of developing processes, products, or services.
Business
2 answers:
Soloha48 [4]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

  Strategic alliance.

Explanation:

  It is a decision by which two companies decide to share resources to accomplish a mutual project. It is attractive to them because it allows the firms to achieve goals faster and at a lower cost. Nevertheless, the companies still as two different firms and maintain their autonomy from each other, unlike in a joint venture.

  I hope this answer helps you.

Natalija [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Strategic Alliances

Explanation:

Strategic alliances developed and propagated as  formalized inter organizational relationships, particularly among companies in international business  systems.                                                                                              These cooperative arrangements seek to  achieve organizational objectives better through collaboration than through competition.

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A client sustained a head injury when falling off of a ladder. While in the hospital, the client begins voiding large amounts of
dexar [7]

Answer:

The client should be tested for <em>Diabetes insipidus (DI)</em>

Explanation:

Literally, Diabetes insipidus (DI) is an uncommon disorder that causes an imbalance of fluids in the body. It is a rare condition that causes the body to make a lot of insipid urine. Alongside with lots of urination, this condition is characterized by an increased thirst.

<em>Other symptoms are</em>

  • Dry skin.
  • Constipation.
  • Weak muscles.
  • Bedwetting.

It is most likely that the client's kidneys can no longer concentrate the urine normally, hence; the reason why large amount of dilute urine is excreted.

If left untreated, diabetes insipidus can lead to brain damage and poor growth.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A three-month HP put option with an exercise price of $60 sells for a premium of $8. The put is in the money only if the price o
Mkey [24]

Answer:

less than $60 per share

Explanation:

A put option is the money when the exercise price is greater than the asset price, thus the put has to be less than $60

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Mustang Corporation reports the following for the month of April: Finished goods inventory, April 1 $ 33,400 Finished goods inve
Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

$133,100

Explanation:

Given that,

Finished goods inventory, April 1 = $33,400

Finished goods inventory, April 30 = $27,300

Total cost of goods manufactured = $127,000

Cost of goods sold:

= Cost of goods manufactured + Beginning Finished goods inventory - Ending Finished goods inventory

= $127,000 + $33,400 - $27,300

= $133,100

Therefore, the cost of goods sold for April is $133,100.

5 0
3 years ago
A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is:________-
k0ka [10]

A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is: gram positive.

<h3>What is a prokaryotic cell wall?</h3>

The prokaryotic cells are known to have strong cell walls. These are known to be located under a particular capsule. The function is to help in the maintenance of shape and also help in the protections of the interior parts of the cells.

Hence we can say that: A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is: gram positive.

Read more on prokaryotic cell wall here: brainly.com/question/14771066

#SPJ1

4 0
1 year ago
Assume that the price of a European call expiring in six-month with a strike price of $30 is $2. Suppose that the underlying sto
Komok [63]

Answer:

correct option is c. $2.51

Explanation:

given data

strike price of $30 = $2

underlying stock price = $29

dividend = $0.50

risk-free rate = 10%

solution

we use here pit call parity  that is

c - p = s - k e^{-rt} -D    .....................1

S is current price and c is call premium and r is rate and t is time

so price of put p will be

p = c-s + k e^{-rt} + D

put here value and we get

p  = 2 -29 + 30  e^{-0.1*0.5} + 0.5  e^{-0.1*2/12}  + 0.5 e^{-0.1*5/12}

p  = 2.508

p = $2.51

so correct option is c. $2.51

8 0
3 years ago
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