23 is the answer for this question
Answer:5
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
It is p = 1
p⁰=1 because it is basically saying and when simplifying fractional exponents we can flip the bottom exponent up to the top if we change the sign, leaving us with : (p⁵-p⁵)=p⁰
3
18/6=3
6q
no time chuck a whole $50 bill at the employee
