If the nicotine cigarettes are highly addictive and they were to offer the free samples to young adults then it will make the people be highly addictive in the nicotine cigarettes and this will cause the economy in the producers to have a less demand in elasticity. If it has a less elasticity, then it will cause a large price change, affecting the consumed quantity by the consumers.
Answer:
B)tie-in sales.
Explanation:
Theses are the options for the question;
A. misrepresentation.
B. tie-in sales.
C. reciprocity.
D. price discrimination.
E. kickbacks
From the question, we are informed about a statement ""I'll let you sell the Harley-Davidson designer clothes only if you'll also sell a new line of clothes designed by Paula Abdul, too."
This statement made by a salesperson to a specialty retailer is potentially an example of tie- sales and may be in violation of the Clayton Act prohibition if the action substantially lessens competition.
It should be noted that tie - in sales in finance means that when a cusumer buys a goods he/she must buy the other product, it simply means the products are tied, and this is opposite of Clayton Act which was set up to bring end to transactions that can lead to monopolies.
Answer:
$182,083
Explanation:
The computation of the total assets by considering the total assets turnover is shown below:
Total assets turnover = Sales ÷ total assets
2.4 = $415,000 ÷ total assets
So, the total assets equal to
= $415,000 ÷ 2.4
= $172,917
So, the assets is reduced by
= Year-end total assets - calculated assets
= $355,000 - $172,917
= $182,083
Answer:
C) no tax benefit or liability
Explanation:
when you sell an asset, you must determine the gain or loss on the transaction and that is calculated by ⇒ sales price - book value
If both sales price and book value are the same, no gain or loss will result. You are taxed only when you have a gain, or you get a tax benefit only if you have a loss, but when the net result is 0, nothing happens.
Answer:
as a "Deferred Development Cost" on the Balance Sheet.
Explanation:
IAS 38.57 QUOTED
"Development costs are capitalised only after technical and commercial feasibility of the asset for sale or use have been established. This means that the entity must intend and be able to complete the intangible asset and either use it or sell it and be able to demonstrate how the asset will generate future economic benefits"
The cost is measured (500,000) has the intention and resources to complete the asset and is possible to bring into production so it is possible to capitalize it
