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Vikentia [17]
3 years ago
13

What is the answer to the following problem. Why? 6÷−3

Mathematics
1 answer:
Korolek [52]3 years ago
8 0
The answer is -1 because 6 divided by 3 is 2 and then subtract 3 so that leaves you with -1
You might be interested in
The weight of a tree is doubling every 3 years and how many years will be way of the tree be 1600% of its weight now
BARSIC [14]
Doubling every 3 years, meaning 200% every 3 years.

1600 \div 200 = 8
8 \times 3 = 24
The answer is 24 years.

Hope this helps. - M
6 0
3 years ago
Assume that we have two events, and , that are mutually exclusive. Assume further that we know and . If an amount is zero, enter
sweet [91]

Answer:

Explained below.

Step-by-step explanation:

The complete question is:

Assume that we have two events, A and B, that are mutually exclusive. Assume further that we know P(A) = 0.30 and P(B) =0.40.

What is P(A and B)?

What is P(A | B)?

Is P(A | B) equal to P(A)?

Are events A and B dependent or independent?

A student in statistics argues that the concepts of mutually exclusive events and independent events are really the same, and that if events are mutually exclusive they must be independent. Is this statement accurate?

What general conclusion would you make about mutually exclusive and independent events given the results of this problem?

Solution:

The probability of the two events <em>A</em> and <em>B</em> are:

P(A) = 0.30 and P(B) =0.40

(a)

Compute the value of P (A ∩ B) as follows:

P(A\cap B)=0

This is because mutually exclusive events are those events that cannot occur together.

(b)

Compute the value of P (A | B) as follows:

P(A|B)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{0}{0.40}=0

Thus, the value of P (A | B) is 0.

(c)

No, P (A | B) is not equal to the P (A).

(d)

As mentioned in part (a), mutually exclusive events are those events which cannot occur together.

That is, P(A\cap B)=0.

Events A and B are independent  if the chance of their concurrent happening is equivalent to the multiplication of their distinct probabilities.

That is, P(A\cap B)=P(A)\times P(B).

The concepts of mutually exclusive events and independent events are not the same.

(e)

As the it is provided that A and B are mutually exclusive events, we know that P(A\cap B)=0.

Now compute the value of P(A)\times P(B) as follows:

               P(A)\times P(B)=0.30\times 0.40=0.12\neq 0

Thus, the events A and B are not independent.

Thus, if two events are mutually exclusive events they cannot be independent.

4 0
4 years ago
22
mina [271]

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Write the equation of the line with a slope of - 2 and a y-intercept of (0, - 4) in slope-intercept form.
Olin [163]

\bf y=-2x\stackrel{\stackrel{(0,-4)}{\downarrow }}{-4}\impliedby \qquad \begin{array}{|c|ll} \cline{1-1} slope-intercept~form\\ \cline{1-1} \\ y=\underset{y-intercept}{\stackrel{slope\qquad }{\stackrel{\downarrow }{m}x+\underset{\uparrow }{b}}} \\\\ \cline{1-1} \end{array}

8 0
3 years ago
A bakery makes 40 different flavors of muffins. 25% of the flavors have chocolate as one of the ingredients. Draw a tape to show
kobusy [5.1K]

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

A bakery makes 40 different flavors of muffins.

25% of the flavors have chocolate as one of the ingredients.

Convert 25% to fraction:

25\%=\dfrac{25}{100}=\dfrac{1}{4}

So, there are

40\cdot \dfrac{1}{4}=10

muffins which have chocolate as one of the ingredients.

In attached tape diagram:

green - with chocolate

blue - without chocolate

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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