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3 years ago

Rey bought 10 shares of Apex Co. for $17 each and later sold all of them at

Business

1 answer:

cluponka [151]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

C. Capital Loss

Explanation:

When the selling price of an asset like bonds etc exceeds it purchase price then the capital profit will be the difference between sale and purchase price.

But if the purchase price is greater than the sale price the difference is called Capital loss.

Example: if we buy 100 shares for $20 each and after a year sell them for $ 18 then the difference is called the capital loss.

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RAWRRRRRRRRR Whahahaha

____ [38]

Explanation:

wow

I see you are interested in horror movies

3 0

2 years ago

Last year Carson Industries issued a 10-year, 12% semiannual coupon bond at its par value of $1,000. Currently, the bond can be

Nataly [62]

Answer:

YTM = 8.93%

YTC = 8.47%

Explanation:

$P = \frac{C}{2} \times\frac{1-(1+YTC/2)^{-2t} }{YTC/2} + \frac{CP}{(1+YTC/2)^{2t}}$

The first part is the present value of the coupon payment until the bond is called.

The second is the present value of the called amount

P = market price value = 1,200

C = annual coupon payment = 1,000 x 12% 120

C/2 = 60

CP = called value = 1,060

t = time = 6 years

$P = 60 \times\frac{1-(1+YTC/2)^{-2\times 6} }{YTC/2} + \frac{1,060}{(1+YTC/2)^{2\times 6}}$

Using Financial calculator we get the YTC

8.467835879%

$P = 60 \times\frac{1-(1+YTM/2)^{-2\times 10} }{YTM/2} + \frac{1,000}{(1+YTM/2)^{2\times 10}}$

The first part is the present value of the coupon payment until manurity

The second is the present value of the redeem value at maturity

P = market price value = 1,200

C = coupon payment = 1,000 x 12%/2 = 60

C/2 = 60

F = face value = 1,060

t = time = 10 years

Using Financial calculator we get the YTM

8.9337714%

4 0

3 years ago

If $1000 is invested at 6% interest, compounded annually, then after n years the investment is worth an

Temka [501]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Initial investment= $1,000

Annual interest rate= 6% = 0.06

Number of periods= n

To calculate the future value after "n" periods, we need to use the following formula:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

For example:

n= 6 years

FV= 1,000*(1.06^6)

FV= $1,418.52

6 0

2 years ago

Suusssssysysysyysysysys boi amugus

Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

ur mom

im a free man in a free town in a country and a free world

8 0

2 years ago

At December 31, 2021, Moonlight Bay Resorts had the following deferred income tax items: Deferred tax asset of $102 million rela

masha68 [24]

Answer:

Moonligh Bay Resorts will report a Non-current liability of $126 million

Explanation:

The question is to determine whether Moonlight Bay Resorts is to report an asset (current or non-current) or a liability (current or non-current) in its December 31st 2021 Balance Sheet

The step is to determine the classification of the items in the balance sheet

This is done as follows

Description Amount ($)

Total Deferred Tax liability (168 million + 120 million) 288 million

(Deferred tax liabilities related to

both current and non-current assets)

Total Deferred tax asset (102 million + 60 million) (162 million)

The net deferred tax liability 126 million

Since, under the International Financial Reporting Standards Deferred Tax Liability is a Non-current liability, it means Moonligh Bay Resorts will report a Non-current liability of $126 million

7 0

3 years ago