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professor190 [17]
3 years ago
8

A bag contains 1 red, 2 blue, 4 orange, and 3 purple marbles. A marble is drawn and not replaced. Then a second marble is drawn.

9. What is P(red, then orange)?
Mathematics
2 answers:
horsena [70]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Hi there!

The correct answer is 2/45 or 4.44%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the first draw is a red marble it will be 1/10

but then marble is not put back and now you have 9 marbles

then you have a 4/9 chance of drawing an orange marble

then you multiply 1/10 by 4/9 = 4/90 then you can simplify 2/45

vovangra [49]3 years ago
3 0

Answer

\documentclass\begin{document}\\0.0\overline{4}

Step-by-step explanation:

Possibility of red is 1/10 and getting orange after is 4/9 because one marble has been removed so it is \document\begin{document}\\\frac{1}{10}*\frac{4}{9}=0.0\overline{4}

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zavuch27 [327]

Answer:

1) x=0.465

2) option A.

Step-by-step explanation:

1) The given equation is:

{3}^{x + 2}  = 15We rewrite this as logarithm to get:

x + 2 =  log_{3}(15)

The change of base formula is:

log_{b}(y)  =  \frac{ log(y) }{ log(b) }

We apply the change of base formula on the RHS to get:

x + 2 =  \frac{ log(15) }{ log(3) }

x + 2 =  \frac{1.176}{0.477}

x + 2 = 2.465

Group similar terms:

x = 2.465 - 2.000 = 0.465

2)

From the graph, the logarithmic function approaches negative infinity as x approaches -6.

Therefore the vertical asymptote is x=-6

The graph touches the x-axis at x=-5, therefore the x-intercept is x=-5.

The correct answer is A.

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4 years ago
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klemol [59]
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MArishka [77]

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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