Answer:
B) $5.64 million
Explanation:
SAP inc can receive $500,000/ shipyard and 4 shipyards a year yields gross cash flows of 500*4 = $2,000,000. Half of these are costs that give us a Net cash flow of $1,000,000/ year.
Since there is no maturity of the project we calculate present value of cash flow with the following formula
PV of cash flow = 1,000,000/0.14 = $7.14 million rounded off
NPV = 7.14-1.5 = 5.64 million
Hope that helps.
The answer is d by the way
Answer:
$1,275
Explanation:
Recall that,
Net operating working assets (NOWC) = Current assets - (current liabilities - notes payable).
Thus,
Given that
Current assets = 2500
Current liabilities = 975 + 250 + 600 = 1825
Notes Payable = 600
Therefore,
NOWC = 2500 - (1825 - 600)
NOWC = 2500 - 1225
NOWC = $1275
Answer:
C. Depreciation
Explanation:
The Indirect method reconciles the Operating income to the Operating Cash flow by adjusting the following items (i) Non -Cash Items previously added or deducted from Operating Profit and (ii) Changed in Working Capital items. From the given options, only depreciation is added back as it was previously deducted from Operating Income.
Answer:
$20,000
Explanation:
If the Rubber Division was dropped at the beginning of last year, the financial advantage (disadvantage) to the company for the year would have been: the segment's margin of $20,000
The president considering the elimination of this division is not advisable. As long as none of the allocated common corporate fixed costs could be avoided, If the Rubber Division was dropped at the beginning of last year, the financial disadvantage to the company for the year would have been it's contributed margin that went towards off-setting corporate fixed costs.
Furthermore, if this segment is closed, it would affect the Cork division because it would be reporting a lower net operating income of $90,000 as a result of bearing all the corporate costs alone.