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beks73 [17]
3 years ago
9

Champion manufactures winter fleece jackets for sale in the United States. Demand for jackets during the season is normally dist

ributed, with a mean of 20,000 and a standard deviation of 10,000. Each jacket sells for $60 and costs $30 to produce. Any leftover jackets at the end of the season are sold for $25 at the year-end clearance sale. Holding jackets until the year-end sale adds another $5 to their cost. A recent recruit has suggested shipping leftover jackets to South America for sale in the winter there rather than running a clearance. Each jacket will fetch a price of $35 in South America, and all jackets sent there are likely to sell. Shipping costs add additional $5 to the cost of any jacket sold in South America, along with the $5 for holding jackets till the end of the season.
Required:
a. Would you recommend the South American option? Support your decision with calculations.
b. How will the South American option affect production and profitability at Champion?
c. On average, how many jackets will Champion ship to South America each season? (Note: you have already calculated this value in order to get the expected profit for the South American option.
Business
1 answer:
Alex Ar [27]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a. South American generates higher service level.

b. The profitability is higher in South American Option.

c. 19,269 jackets

Explanation:

<u>Particulars : Current Policy ; South American Option</u>

Anticipate demand : 20,000 ; 20,000

Standard deviation : 10,000 ; 10,000

Unit costs : $30 ; $30

Sales price : $60 ; $60

Disposal value : $25 ; $30

Inventory holding cost : $5 ; $5

South America Sales Price : 0  ; $35  

Shipping Costs : 0 ; $5

Salvage Value : $20 ; $25

Cost of under stock : $30 ; $30

Cost of overstock : $10 ; $5

Optimal cycle service level : 0.7500 ; 0.8571

Optimal production size : 26,745 ; 30,676

Expected profits : $472,889 ; $521,024

Expected Overstock 8,236 , 11,407

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egoroff_w [7]

Answer:

 b. an economic profit of 100%.

Explanation:

A monopoly is when there is only one firm operating in the industry. There are high barriers to entry of firms in a monopoly. Profit is maximised where MR = MC.

Economic profit is affected by the entry or exit of firms into the industry in the long run. Due to the high barriers to entry, a monopoly earns economic profit in the long run.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
3 years ago
Is 40 a prime number​
Nat2105 [25]

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Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Because of uncertainty about future inflation, the union devotes a large quantity of resources to monitoring inflation indicator
IrinaVladis [17]

Answer:

C. Variable inflation is associated with high transaction costs

Explanation:

Because of uncertainty about future inflation, it may not uncertain relative to its price change. Therefore, option A is not correct.

In order to maximize financial position, inflation harms borrowers and helps lenders, so option B is also incorrect.

Option C is correct because variable inflation is associated with high transaction costs in order to maximize the financial position. For example, if the inflation rate is 5% during first quarter, the price level is not much to disrupt the financial position. Again, in the next quarter, if the inflation rate changes to 4%, the position will be effective more. However, if it increases, it will not affect too much.

7 0
3 years ago
Westsyde Tool Company is expected to pay a dividend of $1.50 in the upcoming year. The risk-free rate of return is 6%, and the e
lawyer [7]

Answer:

Return on company's stock = 15.6%

Explanation:

<u><em>The capital asset pricing model (CAPM)</em></u><em> relates the price of a share to the market risk or systematic risk. The systematic risk is that which affects all the all the economic agents, e.g inflation, interest rate e.t.c</em>

Using the CAPM , the expected return on a asset is given as follows:

E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)

E(r) =? , Rf- 6%, Rm- 14%, β- 1.2

E(r)  = 6% + 1.2× (14- 6)%

        = 6%  + 9.6%

         = 15.6%

Return on company's stock = 15.6%

7 0
3 years ago
On January 1, a company issued and sold a $440,000, 6%, 10-year bond payable, and received proceeds of $434,000. Interest is pay
Harlamova29_29 [7]

Answer:

The carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment is $434,300.

Explanation:

Face value of the bond = $440,000

Proceeds from bond issue = $434,000

Discount on bond payable = Face value of the bond - Proceeds from bond issue = $440,000 - $434,000 = $6,000

Total number of seminual = Number of years of bond maturity * Number of semiannual in a year = 10 * 2 = 20

Discount amortizaton per semiannual = Discount on bond payable / Total number of seminual = $6,000 / 20 = $300

Carrying value after first interest payment = Proceeds from bond issue + Discount amortizaton per semiannual = $434,000 + $300 = $434,300

Therefore, the carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment is $434,300.

3 0
3 years ago
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