When the Federal Reserve sells treasury bonds to a bank, the money supply is decreased. Since there are smaller available funds for the bank to loan (they have tied up some cash by buying the bonds), the interest rate the bank charges (all other things EQUAL!) will increase.
Basically, what has happened is that the bank has lent money to the federal government, rather than to other lenders. So if it has no other sources of lendable funds AND borrowers don't have other banks to go to that are charging the current rate, the same number of borrowers competing for a smaller amount of borrowable funds will lead to a higher price, (interest rate) for those loans.
Answer:
For this situation, the choices ought to be against the three workers. This is principally because of the way that the inability to execute the understanding will bring about the hopeless damage which can be looked by the previous managers. The odds of a material change any inconclusive time later on doesn't bring about any sort of material change.
Simultaneously, if there is an adjustment in the administration of the association, it doesn't bring about any sort of material change which can be used by somebody in that reality that the contract not to contend was revoked.
Answer:
The slope of the budget constraint is -0.2. The solution is attached in the picture below
Explanation:
Answer:
8.28%
Explanation:
Given that,
Net income = $10 million
Total debt = $65 million
Debt ratio = 35 percent
Debt ratio = Total debt ÷ Total assets
35 percent = $65 million ÷ Total assets
Total assets = $65 million ÷ 35 percent
= $185,714,286
Wave Runnerz's ROE for 2018:
= Net income ÷ Equity
= $10,000,000 ÷ (Total assets - Debt)
= $10,000,000 ÷ ($185,714,286 - $65,000,000)
= $10,000,000 ÷ $120,714,286
= 0.0828 or 8.28%
