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2 years ago

Here is some price information on Fincorp stock. Suppose first that Fincorp trades in a dealer market.

Business

1 answer:

Hoochie [10]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

The following are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

In option a, The trading shall take place at $55.50 because it's the best possible market value.

In option b, The trading being taken out at $55,25 since it is the best price available on the market.

In option c, The deal doesn't occur as $55.62 (minimum bid price) is moreover $55.25.

In option d, The transaction would not be taken out and it is under $55.37 (ask price).

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On March 1, Year 1, Gilmore Incorporated declared a cash dividend on its 1,500 outstanding shares of $50 par value, 6% preferred

Aleksandr-060686 [28]

Answer:

Dividend Declared (SCE) $4,500 (credit)

Shareholders for Dividends (SFP) $4,500 (credit)

Explanation:

When Dividends are declared, we recognize an Equity Element - Dividend Declared and a liability (Present Obligation that arises with declaration) to the Shareholders of the dividend.

<u>Entry :</u>

Dividend Declared (SCE) $4,500 (credit)

Shareholders for Dividends (SFP) $4,500 (credit)

Dividend Calculation = 1,500 × $50 × 6%

= $4,500

8 0

3 years ago

The Vintage Laundry Company purchased $6,500 worth of laundry supplies on June 2 and recorded the purchase as an asset. On June

Mazyrski [523]

Answer:

D.) debit Supplies Expense. $5,500; credit Supplies, $5,500

Explanation:

First, let's talk about the amount.

On June 2 they purchased supplies worth $6,500 and recorded it as an ASSET. Debited on "Supplies" Account

Then on June 30, only $1,000 is on hand. That means that $5,500 worth of supplies must have been used (Solved as 6,500 less 1,000)

Now, the entry should reduce the "Supplies" Account since there were only $1,000 left. So it's correct to credit Supplies for $5,500 to reduce $6,500 into $1,000 worth.

The corresponding debit would consequently be "Supplies Expense" since $5,500 worth of supplies was used for the month.

3 0

3 years ago

The following market information was gathered for the corporation. The firm has 1,000 bonds outstanding, each selling for $1,100

Nana76 [90]

Answer:

9.127%

Explanation:

For calculating the WACC we need to do following calculations which are shown below:

value of debt = 1,000 × $1,100 = $1,100,000

cost of debt = 8% × (1 - 0.3) = 4.8%

value of equity = 50,000 shares × $18 = $900,000

value of preferred stock = 5,000 × $40 = $200,000

Now

Market value of firm = $1,100,000 + $900,000 + $200,000 = $2,200,000

The formula is shown below:

= Weightage of debt × cost of debt + (Weightage of common stock) × (cost of common stock) + (Weightage of preferred stock) × (cost of preferred stock)

WACC = ($1,100,000 ÷ $2,200,000) × 4.8% + ($900,000 ÷ $2,200,000) × 14% + ($200,000 ÷ $2,200,000) × 11%

= 9.127%

3 0

3 years ago

Dr. Shetty is able to drive down the cost of complex medical procedures from $100,000 to $2,000 not by doing one big thing, but

melomori [17]

Answer:

C. Process Innovation.

Explanation:

As Dr. Shetty is able to drive down the cost of complex medical procedures from $100,000 to $2,000 not by doing one big thing, but rather by doing a thousand small things. This approach focuses on driving down the cost of healthcare through process innovation. Process innovation is the mechanism when we implement a new or significantly improved manufacturing method with the help of a new technology in order to remain competitive and meet consumers demands at the same time. We try to solve an already existing issue or reforms an existed process in a different way to generate something with huge benefits, likewise, same is the case here with Dr. Shetty who has reduced the cost of healthcare quite significantly just by changing and improving his production methods.

7 0

3 years ago

Carol Thomas will pay out $14,000 at the end of the year 2, $16,000 at the end of year 3, and receive $18,000 at the end of year

Fittoniya [83]

The net value of the payments vs. receipts in today's dollars is ($11,102).

<h3>What is the present value?</h3>

The present value of future cash flows is the current value or the value in today's dollars. It is computed by discounting the future values at the appropriate discount rate.

The present value can be computed using the Present Value formula, an online finance calculator, or the PV factor table.

Formula

PV=FV \frac{1}{(1+r)^{n}}

PV = present value

FV = future value

r = rate of return

{n} = number of periods

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

Interest rate = 12%

Period Cash flow PV Factor PV

Year 2 ($14,000) 0.797 -$11,158 ($14,000 x 0.797)

Year 3 ($16,000) 0.712 -$11,392 ($16,000 x 0.712)

Year 4 $18,000 0.636 $11,448 ($18,000 x 0.636)

Net present value of cash flows -$11,102

Thus, the net value of the payments vs. receipts in today's dollars is ($11,102).

Learn more about present value at brainly.com/question/20813161

4 0

2 years ago