Answer:
And we can find this probability using the complement rule and the normal standard distribution and we got:
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
Normal distribution, is a "probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean, showing that data near the mean are more frequent in occurrence than data far from the mean".
The Z-score is "a numerical measurement used in statistics of a value's relationship to the mean (average) of a group of values, measured in terms of standard deviations from the mean".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable that represent the number of attacks of a population, and for this case we know the distribution for X is given by:
Where 
and 
We are interested on this probability
And the best way to solve this problem is using the normal standard distribution and the z score given by:
If we apply this formula to our probability we got this:
And we can find this probability using the complement rule and the normal standard distribution and we got:
Answer:
0.9 ≈ 90%
Step-by-step explanation:
60% = 60/100
150% of 60% = 150/100 * 60/100
= 9000/10000
= 0.9 ≈ 90%
50/250 = 1/5 = 0.20 = 20%
Answer: 20%
Hello! I can help you with this!
a. The function that would best represent Samantha's account is f(5) = 500(1 + 0.04)^5. This is because $500 is the principal, the interest rate is 4%, and we're looking for the amount in the savings account 5 years later.
b. Okay. 1 = 0.04 is 1.04. 1.04^5 is 1.216652902. It's a long decimal, but don't delete it. Multiply that decimal by 500 and you get 608.32645 and other numbers behind it or 608 when rounded to the nearest dollar. Samantha will have about $608 in her savings account in 5 years.
Note: The formula goes like this: f(x) = P(1 + r)^x. This means, you add 1 and the simple interest rate in decimal form together and raise that up by the exponent. There is no shortcuts for this, so you'll have to use the calculator. There will be a very long decimal, but don't clear it. Instead, multiply it by the principal to get the answer. It seems very complicating, but if you do this right, it gets easier overtime and you'll make less errors. There are more complex problems out there, so this formula is very important, but it was kept simple for this question.
Since FA || BE, then angle 1 must equal angle 2 since they are corresponding angles along parallel lines where the transverse line cuts.
Thus, if angle 1 is 59, then angle 2 must also be 59 (ie D)
