Answer:
C: 0.5 hours
Explanation:
Average service time = 1/Average service rate = 1/2 = 0.5 hours
Answer:
Explanation:
a). The highest point of the house was hurt. It will be made sure about under Part A . The most outrageous proportion of game plan is $120,000. The cash estimation of hardship is $10,000. In this manner, the dollar whole receivable for adversity is $10,000.
b). The damage of window of the parlor will be made sure about under Part A course of action. The cash estimation of the damages is $400. From this time forward, the dollar proportion of mishap payable is $400.
c). The damages on account of impact of water radiator will be made sure about under Part C, singular property hurt. The most outrageous proportion of hardship will be half of inclusion A. The most extraordinary proportion of consideration will be $60,000 (half of $120,000). In any case, the genuine cash estimation of the incident is $2,000. In this way, the dollar proportion of setback will be $2,000
The MR = MC rule C. applies only to pure monopoly.
<h3>What is monopoly?</h3>
It should be noted that monopoly simply means the only seller of a good to service in the market.
In this case, the MR = MC rule applies only to pure monopoly.
In conclusion, the correct option is C.
Learn more about monopoly on:
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Answer:
<u>Using related diversification to achieve value by integrating vertically in order to acquire market power.</u>
Explanation:
First, let's understand what are the stages of a supply chain, they are:
- commodities
- manufacturing
- distribution
- retail
In this regard, we can see that Shaw Industries controls more than one stage of its supply, commodities and manufacturing chain, which characterizes vertical integration.
Therefore, the most appropriate alternative to the question is that the company gains a greater market gain with this strategy because it increases the management and quality control, by ensuring that the inputs and processes are in accordance with its standards, which guarantees a product of higher quality and consequently better positioned on the market.
Answer:
The correct option is (b)
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the foreign currency that original sold at the market is shown below:
= (Forward rate to Jan 15 - Spot rate) × paymen made
= ($0.00089 - $0.00082 ) × 20 million
= $0.00007 × 20,000,000
= $1,400 premium
hence, the foreign currency that originally sold at the market is $1,400 premium
Therefore the correct option is (b)
