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Alex73 [517]
4 years ago
7

When the U.S. dollar appreciates against other currencies, U.S. goods can be __________ to consumers in foreign countries but ca

n have __________ implications for American companies with branch operations overseas.
Business
2 answers:
Schach [20]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

More expensive and negative

Explanation:

1. Because a customer in orther country must pay more to buy U.S dollar so the same product but now it is different price.

2/ Because it becomes more expensive for those company when thay declare foreign profits in the United States

Nat2105 [25]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": more expensive; negative.

Explanation:

A currency appreciates when its value increases in front of the value of other currencies. It is beneficial for countries where the appreciated currency represents the official method of payment but for foreign countries, it is translated as a devaluation of their currency.

Thus, <em>if the U.S. dollar appreciates, U.S. goods will be </em><u><em>more expensive</em></u><em> everywhere where the U.S. dollar is not the official currency. However, for firms operating in both the U.S. and abroad, this scenario will be </em><u><em>negative</em></u><em> because when they bring their money back to the U.S. they will have to change the foreign currency to U.S. dollars at a higher exchange rate, meaning entities will have lower U.S. dollars.</em>

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devlian [24]

Answer: parametric

Explanation:

As a general rule of thumb, when the dependent variable’s level of measurement is nominal (categorical) or ordinal, then a non-parametric test should be selected. When the dependent variable is measured on a continuous scale, then a parametric test should typically be selected. Fortunately, the most frequently used parametric analyses have non-parametric counterparts. This can be useful when the assumptions of a parametric test are violated because you can choose the non-parametric alternative as a backup analysis.

8 0
3 years ago
Fargo Company's outstanding stock consists of 400 shares of noncumulative 5% preferred stock with a $10 par value and 3,000 shar
kifflom [539]

Answer: Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Dividend in 2016 = $20,000

Preferred Shares = 400

Par Value of Preferred Stock = 400 × 10 = $4000

Rate of Dividend of Preferred Stock = 5%

(a) Dividend to preferred Shareholders:

= Par Value of Preferred Stock × Rate of Dividend

= $4000  × 5%

= $200

(b) Dividend to Common Shareholders:

= Total Dividend - Dividend to Preferred Shareholders

= $20,000  - $200

= $19,800

6 0
3 years ago
In June, an investor purchased 200 shares of Oracle (an information technology company) stock at $37 per share. In August, she p
Iteru [2.4K]

Answer:

the  weighted mean price per share is $38.76

Explanation:

The computation of the weighted mean price per share is given below:

= (200 shares × $37 per share + 270 shares × $36 per share + 490 shares × $41 per share) ÷ (200 shares + 270 shares + 490 shares)

= ($7,400 + $9,720 + $20,090) ÷ (960 shares)

= $37,210 ÷ 960 shares

= $38.76

Hence, the  weighted mean price per share is $38.76

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following users of accounting information are interested in the quality of a company assets?
kaheart [24]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Well public is all about quality

7 0
3 years ago
Orchard Farms has a pretax cost of debt of 7.29 percent and a cost of equity of 16.3 percent. The firm uses the subjective appro
svp [43]

Answer: Net present value =  $446,556

Explanation:

First we'll compute the Weighted Average Cost of Capital :

Weighted Average Cost of Capital = K_{e} \times W_{e} + K_{d} \times W_{d}

= 0.163×\frac{1}{1.48} + 0.0729× (1 - 0.35 )× \frac{0.48}{1.48}  

= 0.1255

where;

K_{e} = Cost of equity

W_{e} = Proportion of equity

K_{d} = Cost of debt

W_{d} = Proportion of debt

Now, we'll compute the cost of capital using the following formula:

Cost of capital = Weighted Average Cost of Capital + adjustment factor

= 0.1255 + 0.0125

= 0.138 or 13.8%

∴ Net present value = Cash outflows - Total PV of cash flows

= $3,900,000 - $1,260,000 (Annuity value of 13.8% for 5 years)

= 3,900,000 - 1260000 \times \frac{[1-(1+13.8)^{-5}]}{13.8}

= $3,900,000 - $3,453,444

= $446,556

Therefore, the correct answer is option(b).

5 0
4 years ago
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