Answer:
They should operate Mine 1 for 1 hour and Mine 2 for 3 hours to meet the contractual obligations and minimize cost.
Explanation:
The formulation of the linear programming is:
Objective function:

Restrictions:
- High-grade ore: 
- Medium-grade ore: 
- Low-grade ore: 
- No negative hours: 
We start graphing the restrictions in a M1-M2 plane.
In the figure attached, we have the feasible region, where all the restrictions are validated, and the four points of intersection of 2 restrictions.
In one of this four points lies the minimum cost.
Graphically, we can graph the cost function over this feasible region, with different cost levels. When the line cost intersects one of the four points with the lowest level of cost, this is the optimum combination.
(NOTE: it is best to start with a low guessing of the cost and going up until it reaches one point in the feasible region).
The solution is for the point (M1=1, M2=3), with a cost of C=$680.
The cost function graph is attached.
Answer:
40%
Explanation:
For computing the manufacturing cycle efficiency, first we have to compute the throughput time which is shown below:
Throughput time = Process time + Inspection time + Move time + Queue time
= 6 + 0.6 + 0.4 + 8
= 15
Now
Manufacturing cycle efficiency (MCE) is
= Value added time (process time) ÷ Throughput time
= 6 ÷ 15
= 40%
We simply applied the above formulas so that the manufacturing cycle efficiency (MCE) could come
Answer:
Under allocation= 1,000 underallocated
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Dukes Corporation used a predetermined overhead rate this year of $2 per direct labor-hour, based on an estimate of 20,000 direct labor-hours to be worked during the year. Actual costs and activity during the year were: Actual manufacturing overhead cost incurred $ 38,000 Actual direct labor-hours worked 18,500
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 2*18,500= $37,000
Real overhead= 38,000
Over/under allocation= real MOH - allocated MOH
Under allocation= 38,000 - 37,000= 1,000 underallocated
Answer:
$1,125,000
Explanation:
Given;
Gain from asset disposal = $225,000
Book value of asset disposed = $900,000
Therefore,
Amount of cash received from the sale = $900,000 + $225,000
= $1,125,000
This represents an inflow of cash and will be represented by a positive value in the statement of cash flows. The total amount reported in the cash flows from investing activities section of the statement of cash flows is $1,125,000
Answer:
The correct answer is option b.
Explanation:
A firm is able to maximize it's profit by producing output at the level where the marginal revenue earned from the last unit of output is equal to marginal cost incurred on it.
If a firm is operating at the point where the marginal revenue is lower than the marginal cost then the firm can maximize profit by reducing its output till the point where the marginal revenue and marginal cost are equal.