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spayn [35]
2 years ago
7

A professional basketball players' union negotiates a contract that dramatically increases all players' salaries. How would this

influence the opportunity cost for a player who was considering giving up basketball to pursue a career in broadcasting?a. it should have no bearing on the player's decision from an economic standpointb. it would increase the opportunity cost of becoming a broadcasterc. it would cause the production possibilities frontier to become convexd. it would increase the opportunity cost of continuing to play professional basketballe. it would not affect the opportunity cost of playing basketball or of broadcasting
Business
1 answer:
Misha Larkins [42]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

B) It would increase the opportunity cost of becoming a broadcaster.

Explanation:

Opportunity costs are defined as the cost of choosing one alternative activity or investment over another.

The basketball player has two options, he can continue to play for an NBA team with a much better salary, or he can decide to become a broadcaster. If the player decides to quit basketball, then he will lose more money due to pay raise. That amount of money that he will lose if he decides to become a broadcaster is the opportunity cost of becoming a broadcaster. Since the pay increase raised the player's salary, the opportunity cost of becoming a broadcaster also increases.

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If the number of people classified as unemployed is 50,000 and the number of people classified as employed is 250,000, what is t
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Based on the given values above, it is said that there are 50,000 people who are unemployed and 250,000 are employed. This means that the total number of people basing on these numbers is 300,000. So we just have to divide 50,000 by 300,000 and we get 0.17. Therefore, the unemployment rate is 17%. Hope this helps.
5 0
3 years ago
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Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

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<h3>What is loan?</h3>

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