Answer:
The alignment of numbers in the first part of the question is off. However, you solve this question as shown below. The correct answer is C. $1,124.
Explanation:
This is a one-time cashflow type of question where the principal amount is invested once and no other addition is made to the account. You use the future value formula to solve the result of the compounding effect at year 3.
FV formula;
FV = PV(1+r)^n
PV = 800
discount rate; r = 12% or 0.12
total duration of investment; n = 3
therefore; FV = 800(1+0.12)^3
FV = 800 * 1.404928
FV = 1123.94
To the nearest whole dollar, the amount will grow to $1,124
Answer:
The answer is B. $210,000
Explanation:
Retained Earnings is the part of profit that is not spent. It is put back into the business after the dividend must have been paid from profit for the year.
Ending retained earnings = beginning Retained Earnings plus net income minus dividend
Beginning Retained Earnings is $150,000
Net income is $95,000
Dividend is $35,000
Therefore amount of Retained Earnings at December 31, 2019 is
$150,000+$95,000-$35,000
=$210,000
Answer and Explanation:
The Calculation of Predetermined OH Rate is shown below:
For Materials Handling, it is
= Estimated Overhead Costs ÷ Estimated allocated base Quantity
= $54,000 ÷ 96
= $562.50 per part
For Machine Setup, it is
= Estimated Overhead Costs ÷ Estimated allocated base Quantity
= $204,000 ÷ 60
= $3,400 per setup
For Insertion of Parts, it is
= Estimated Overhead Costs ÷ Estimated allocated base Quantity
= $486,000 ÷ 96
= $5,062.50 per part
Now
Calculation of allocated OH is
For Basic Model:
Allocated OH is
= $562.50 × 32 + $3,400 × 20 + $5,062.50 × 32
= $248,000
For Professional Model:
Allocated OH is
= $562.50 × 64 + $3,400 × 40 + $5,062.50 × 64
= $496,000
False, the original seller determines the value, and taxes are added when anyone wants to buy it
