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DanielleElmas [232]
3 years ago
13

Taylor and Sons buys equipment on Aug. 1, 2008 for $100,000 cash. They estimatethe equipment will have a salvage value of $13,00

0 and a useful life of 5 years. a. Write the journal entry to record depreciation for 2008.
Business
1 answer:
larisa86 [58]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Journal Entry

Dr.  Depreciation Expense        $7,250

Cr. Accumulated Depreciation $7,250

Explanation:

Depreciation is a expense which is charged against an asset over its useful life due to wear and tear of that asset. This expense is recorded as and Expense in Income statement and accumulated in an contra asset account asset account until the disposal of the asset.

Cost of Equipment = $100,000

Useful life of the asset = 5 years

Salvage value of the asset = $13,000

Depreciable value of the asset will be expenses equally every year over 5 years.

Depreciable value = Cost of the asset - Salvage value = $100,000 - $13,000 = $87,000

Depreciation Expense = Depreciable Value / Useful Life of the asset = $87,000 / 5 years = $17,400 per year

As only 5 month have been passed in 2008, the depreciation expense account will be charged as follow

Depreciation charge in 2008 = $17,400 x 5 / 12 = $7,250

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A company's triple bottom line measures which aspects of its performance? (choose every correct answer.)
san4es73 [151]

A company's triple bottom line measures environmental, financial, and social. aspects of its performance.

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8 0
1 year ago
What type of budget is used to forecast income and expense for ongoing business operations?
Kruka [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is: Operating budget.

Explanation:

An operating budget is an estimate a business make of the expenses and revenue it plans to book in its ongoing operations. Operating budgets can also be used to forecast future operating corporate periods. This type of budget mainly includes the <em>number of sales expected in dollars</em>, <em>fixed and variable costs</em> as well as <em>operating expenses</em> such as loan payments or depreciation.

4 0
3 years ago
A potential investor is seeking to invest $500,000 in a venture, which currently has 1,000,000 million shares held by its founde
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

a, 15%

b, 150,000

c, $ 3.30

d, = $3,333,333.33

e, $3,833,333.33

Explanation:

To solve this,

Note that we have been given a similar venture to compare to our venture.

The total shareholder's equity for the other venture (P) = $10,000,000 and the net income (E) = $1,000,000

Hence, Price/Earnings (P/E) for other venture = 10,000,000/1,000,000 = 10.0

Now for our venture, Earnings in the 5th year = $500,000

Assuming that P/E ratio for both the ventures to be equal, P/500,000 = 10.0

hence, total shareholder's value for our venture = $5,000,000 --------------- (1)

Now the investor invested $500,000 and expected 50% return after 5 years, hence the investor's value after 5 years would be equal to 500,000 * (1+50%) = $750,000 --------------- (2)

Now percent ownership of venture given to investor = (Value of investor's investment after 5 years/total value of all shareholders after 5 years)

Hence, divide (2) by (1)

percent ownership of venture given to investor = 750,000/5,000,000 = 0.15

or 15%

Therefore Answer to part 'a' is = 15%

Part (b) :For the percentage ownership given to new investor = 15%, total number of shares = 1,000,000

Hence, number of shares issued to new investor = 15% x 1,000,000 = 150,000

Hence, answer to part b = 150,000

Part (c): Amount invested by new investor = $500,000 and number of shares issued to him = 150,000

hence issue price of share = Amount invested / Number of shares issued

= 500,000/150,000 = $3.33

Hence, issue price per share = $3.33

Part (d):

The Pre money valuation is the value of the company before any external funding. In this case, the number of shares held with the founders before the new investor = 1,000,000 and the equity price = $3.33

hence, Value of the venture = 3.33 * 1,000,000 = $3,333,333.33

Hence, pre money valuation of the venture = $3,333,333.33

Part (e): Post money valuation of a company is the value of the company after external funding. In this case, investor invests $500,000 to the venture increasing the value of the company by the same amount.

Hence post money valuation = pre money valuation + Investment

= 3,333,333.33 + 500,000

= 3,833,333.33

Hence, post-money valuation of the venture = $3,833,333.33

7 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2010, the balance in Tabor Co.'s Allowance for Bad Debts account was $13,085. During the first 11 months of the ye
ch4aika [34]

Answer:

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bad debts written for the first 11 months = allowance for bad debt accounts January 1 balance + bad debt expense - allowance for bad debt accounts November 30 balance = $13,085 + $21,937 - $9,919 = $25,103

(b) As the result of a comprehensive analysis, it is determined that the December 31, 2010, balance of the Allowance for Bad Debts account should be $9,450. Show the adjustment required in the journal entry format.Allowance for bad debt Debit $Bad debt expenses Credit $

to determine the amount of bad debt expense that must be adjusted, we must subtract the estimated balance in December 31 from the balance in November 30 = $9,919 - $9,450 = $469. Since the November 30 amount is larger, it means that we over estimated our bad debt expense and it must be reduced:

Dr Allowance for doubtful accounts 469

    Cr Accounts receivable 469

6 0
2 years ago
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