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3 years ago

Pls help find the answer

Mathematics

2 answers:

Mkey [24]3 years ago

5 0

It is 8 definitely , trust me

o-na [289]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

I think it is 8

Step-by-step explanation:

I did the math on paper

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Ok so I have 40 and I need to make it into a mixed fraction

slava [35]

Your Answer Is 40 It’s Simple Really If You Kinda Think About It But Has A Fraction It Would Be 40/1

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3 years ago

An article in Knee Surgery, Sports Traumatology, Arthroscopy, "Arthroscopic meniscal repair with an absorbable screw: results an

igomit [66]

Answer:

Mean = 1.57

Variance=0.31

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate the mean and the variance of the number of successful surgeries (X), we first have to enumerate the possible outcomes:

1) Both surgeries are successful (X=2).

$P(e_1)=0.90*0.67=0.603$

2) Left knee unsuccessful and right knee successful (X=1).

$P(e_2)=(1-0.9)*0.67=0.1*0.67=0.067$

3) Right knee unsuccessful and left knee successful (X=1).

$P(e_3)=0.90*(1-0.67)=0.9*0.33=0.297$

4) Both surgeries are unsuccessful (X=0).

$P(e_4)=(1-0.90)*(1-0.67)=0.1*0.33=0.033$

Then, the mean can be calculated as the expected value:

$M=\sum p_iX_i=0.603*2+0.067*1+0.297*1+0.033*0\\\\M=1.206+0.067+0.297+0\\\\M=1.57$

The variance can be calculated as:

$V=\sum p_i(X_i-\bar{X})^2\\\\V=0.603(2-1.57)^2+(0.067+0.297)*(1-1.57)^2+0.033*(0-1.57)^2\\\\V=0.603*0.1849+0.364*0.3249+0.033*2.4649\\\\V=0.1115+0.1183+0.0813\\\\V=0.3111$

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3 years ago

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2 years ago