Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
175 is the answer I don’t feel like working it out
I'm pretty sure you would need to multiply 2/5 by 40.
So, if you multiply 2/5 by 40, you need to turn 40 into a fraction with 1 being the denominator.
2/5 x 40/1 = 80/5
Since the product is an improper fraction, you would simplify it to a whole number.
80/5 = 16.
He can expect to hit it 16 times to get a hole in one.
I hope I am right and have a great day.
Answer:
Step 2:
Part A
f(x) = a(x-h)^2 +k
Part B
I'm not really sure about this part
Part C
f(x)=-12/25(x-25)^2+32
Step 3:
Part A
y = ax^2 + bx + c
Part B
f(x) = -12/25(x - 25)^2 + 32
Part C
a = -12/25
b = 0
c = 32
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope This Helps!
Sorry For Taking So Long!