The first Continental Congress had gathered to discuss the Coercive Acts, but the Americans had called them the Intolerable Acts. It was British's way to punish Boston after the Boston Tea Party where men dressed as Native Americans dumped British tea into Boston harbor because of its tax.
Both of these leaders had fairly effective strategies when it came to alleviating some of the racial woes during this time. DuBois, however, took a slightly different path in that he emphasized education of blacks as being the most important factor in their advancement.
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The Zhou dynasty (Chinese pinyin: Zhou was a Chinese dynasty that followed the Sang dynasty and preceded the In dynasty.
Santa Anna was Mexico's commander
I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
