Answer:
Cullumber Company
The ending inventory is:
= $4,888.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Item Units Unit Cost Net Realizable Value Value of Ending
Cameras: Inventory (LCNRV)
Minolta 3 $172 $152 $456 ($152 * 3)
Canon 9 140 170 1,260 ($140 * 9)
Light meters:
Vivitar 13 130 100 1,300 ($100 * 13)
Kodak 16 117 128 1,872 ($117 * 16)
Total value of Ending Inventory based on LCNRV = $4,888
b) The Lower of cost- or net realizable value method of valuing ending inventory determines the value by choosing the lower value between the cost price of the inventory and the net realizable value. The purpose that is served by using the LCNRV method is that it reflects the decrease of inventory value when it goes below its original cost while at the same time it does not recognize the increased market value when the cost is lower.
A Debit to Work in Process Inventory and Credit to Factory Overhead will be recorded on journal entry for allocation of factory overhead.
<h3>What is
factory overhead?</h3>
In accounting, a factory overhead refers to total cost involved in operating a manufacturing business and that cannot be traced directly to a product
Hence, Debit to Work in Process Inventory and Credit to Factory Overhead will be recorded on journal entry for allocation of factory overhead.
Therefore, the Option A is correct.
Read more about factory overhead
<em>brainly.com/question/26396695</em>
It depends on many factors, mainly things like nutrient availability, temperature, moisture level, and toxin rate produced by the bacteria. can the bacteria move, or is it an enclosed space like a petri dish? but basically if we're talking about decades, bacteria will most likely not grow at the same rate in nature. in a controlled environment, the answer would be a maybe.
<span>In this case, the transfer could be considered voidable by the trustees. This is because Shirley did not receive the fair value for the car, but simply received a negligible amount as a way of trying to defraud her creditors. In this case, the transfer could be voided.</span>
Answer: $70610
Explanation:
Following the information given, the issue price of the bond will be:
= $6,140,000 × 1.04
= $6,385,600
The premium on bonds payables will be:
= $6,385,600 - $6,140,000
= $245,600
Cash interest Payables will be:
= 6,140,000 × 5% × 3/12
= $76,750
Bond Premium amortization for Each Year will be:
= 245,600 / 10
= $24,560
Then, the premium amortized will be:
= $24,560 × 3/12
= $6,140
Therefore, the interest expenses on Dec 31 will be:
= Cash interset Payables - Premium amortized
= $76,750 - $6,140
= $70,610
