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Gekata [30.6K]
3 years ago
13

The unadjusted trial balance at year-end for a company that uses the percent of receivables method to determine its bad debts ex

pense reports the following selected amounts:
Accounts receivable $441,000 Debit
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 1,310 Debit
Net Sales 2,160,000 Credit
All sales are made on credit.
Based on past experience, the company estimates 2.5% of ending accounts receivable will be uncollectible.
What adjusting entry should the company make at the end of the current year to record its estimated bad debts expense?
a. Debit Bad Debts Expense $11,025; credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $11,025.
b. Debit Bad Debts Expense $9,715; credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $9,715.
c. Debit Bad Debts Expense $12,335; credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $12,335.
d. Debit Bad Debts Expense $5,400; credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $5,400.
e. Debit Bad Debts Expense $15,400; credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $15,400.
Business
1 answer:
Ganezh [65]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The adjusting entry at the end of the year is option c.

Debit Bad Debts Expense $12,335;

credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $12,335

Explanation:

Bad debt : The amount which is not received by the customer for good supplied by the company is treated as a bad debt.

In the given question,

The 2.5% of ending accounts receivable will be uncollectible so, the allowance would be equals to

= 2.5 % of Accounts receivable

= 2.5 % × $441,000

= $110,25

Now add the allowance for doubtful accounts to the allowance which is calculated above.

So,

= $110,25 + 1,310

= $12,335

The estimated bad debts expense is $12,335

Hence, the adjusting entry at the end of the year is option c.

Debit Bad Debts Expense $12,335;

credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $12,335

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PB8.
Sophie [7]

Answer:

                                                                   Debit               Credit

Applied overheads                                    $110,000

Cost of sales (over applied overheads)                             $4,000

Overhead control account                                                 $106,000

Explanation:

Since the estimated overhead amounting to $110,000 are greater than the actual overheads amounting to $106,000, therefore the overheads are overapplied by $4,000.

The journal entry to disposed off the overapplied overheads are given below:

                                                                   Debit               Credit

Applied overheads                                    $110,000

Cost of sales (over applied overheads)                             $4,000

Overhead control account                                                 $106,000

                   

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is NOT one of the factors complicating the techniques for addressing the fixed-position layout?
MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

C) Takt times at workstations are dynamic.

Explanation:

A fixed-position layout can be regarded as a layout that allow products to stay in one place, and movement of workers and machinery can be moved to it once needed. Some of the Products that are not possible to move are airplanes, construction projects as well as ships. Fixed-position layout is usually used when dealing with product which are too large or heavy to move. Disadvantages is that it takes space, and administration burden is usually high. Factors that could complicate the techniques for addressing the fixed-position layout are;

✓There is limited space at virtually all sites.

✓The volume of materials needed is dynamic.

✓At different stages of a project, different materials are needed; therefore, different items become critical as the project develops.

5 0
2 years ago
Any changes to a firm's projected future cash flows that are caused by adding a new project are referred to as:
attashe74 [19]

Answer: A just took the quiz

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Carrot Corporation, a C corporation, has a net short-term capital gain of $65,000 and a net long-term capital loss of $250,000 d
Molodets [167]

Answer:

The answer is  $45,000

Explanation:

$45,000

- Net Short Term Capital gain +Net Long Term Capital loss= 65,000+ (250,000)= -185,000

-Net Long Term Capital loss(2015)+Net Short Term Capital gain (2016)+Net Long Term Capital Gain(2017) = 60,000+45,000+35,000=140,000

-185,000+140,000= <u>(45,000)</u>

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
pencer Co. has a $300 petty cash fund. At the end of the first month the accumulated receipts represent 553 for delivery expense
otez555 [7]

Answer:

c) Credit to Cash for $242

Explanation:

Petty cash, beginning = $300

Delivery expense = $53

Merchandise inventory = $167

Miscellaneous expense = $22

Petty cash, Ending = $58

The journal to record the reimbursement of the accounts will be:

Event    Account Title and Explanation   Debit    Credit

1           Delivery expense                            $53  

           Merchandise inventory                   $167  

           Miscellaneous expense                  $22

                    Cash                                                   $242

4 0
3 years ago
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