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V125BC [204]
3 years ago
13

3/2926 how much is it

Mathematics
2 answers:
Nataly [62]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:0.00102529049

Step-by-step explanation: Use a calculator >:) EX clap.

IrinaK [193]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

0.001025290498975

Step-by-step explanation:

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Ana drew a map of the Panama Canal in the scale Ana used for the map 4 centimeters represents 20 kilometers what is the scale fa
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
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If you help me with this fast I will brain you.<br> Thanks.
irakobra [83]

Answer:

-2 and -6 is the correct answer

5 0
3 years ago
5. and 6. Show work for full credit please.
Delvig [45]

Answer:

2. YWX

Step-by-step explanation:

<T and <Y are congruent

<W and <W are congruent

<Z and <X are congruent

8 0
3 years ago
Dummy forgot his pin code. 20% of his pin code was 246.8 what was dummy pin code?
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The dummies pin code would be 49.36.
8 0
3 years ago
Can you help me with number 6? <br> Confused abit <br> Please
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

You can see the three diagram attached. Each link is labeled with the probability: you have probability 1/6 that a six is rolled, and 5/6 that it is not rolled.


To answer the questions, find the path that brings you to the desired outcome, and multiply all the labels you meet.


First question:

To get three sixes, you have to choose the left path at each roll. The probability is always 1/6, so the answer is


\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} = \frac{1}{6^3}


Second question:

To get no sixes, you have to choose the right path at each roll. The probability is always 5/6, so the answer is


\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} = \frac{5^3}{6^3}


Third question:

To get exactly one six, it can either be the first, second or third roll.


In all cases, you have to choose the left path once and the right path twice: left-right-right mean that you get the six in the first roll, right-left-right means that you get the six in the second roll, right-right-left means that you get the six in the third roll.


In every case, the left turn has probability 1/6, and the right turn has probability 5/6. The probability of each combination is thus


\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} = \frac{5^2}{6^3}


And since there are three of these combinations, The answer is


3\frac{5^2}{6^3}


Fourth question:

Since the question suggests to use what we already achieved, let's do it: having at least one six is the complementary event of having no sixes at all. If an event has probability p, its complementary has probability 1-p. So, since the probability of no sixes is known, the probability of at least one six is


1 - \frac{5^3}{6^3}

4 0
3 years ago
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