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Mazyrski [523]
3 years ago
13

One mile is equal to 5,280 feet. What is the sum of the lengths of all 18 holes on the golf course in miles?

Mathematics
1 answer:
soldi70 [24.7K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

the answer would be 4 Miles.

explanation:

We already know that 5,280 feet equals 1 Mile, and so we divide-

21,120 divided by 5,280, and that equals 4.

hope that made sense! I’m not very good with wording things! :)

You might be interested in
What is the prime factorization of 28 and 50?<br> Explain if possible.
dangina [55]

Answer:

prime factorization of 28

28 = 2 × 2 × 7

prime factorization of 50

50 = 2 × 5 × 5

Step-by-step explanation:

GCF, multiply all the prime factors common to both numbers:

Therefore, GCF = 2

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Geneva rode her bike a total of 2 1/2 miles from her house to school. First she rode 4/5 mile from her house to the park. Then s
Sonja [21]
Add 4/5 and 1/5 to make 5/5 or 1 mile the subtract 1 from 2 1/2 to equal 1 1/2 miles
8 0
3 years ago
Simplify: 8^2 + 9(12 / 3*2) -7
Naily [24]

Answer:

357 / 2

Step-by-step explanation:

your answer would have been 178.5 but just a reminder always do whats in the exponets

5 0
3 years ago
Can you help me with number 6? <br> Confused abit <br> Please
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

You can see the three diagram attached. Each link is labeled with the probability: you have probability 1/6 that a six is rolled, and 5/6 that it is not rolled.


To answer the questions, find the path that brings you to the desired outcome, and multiply all the labels you meet.


First question:

To get three sixes, you have to choose the left path at each roll. The probability is always 1/6, so the answer is


\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} = \frac{1}{6^3}


Second question:

To get no sixes, you have to choose the right path at each roll. The probability is always 5/6, so the answer is


\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} = \frac{5^3}{6^3}


Third question:

To get exactly one six, it can either be the first, second or third roll.


In all cases, you have to choose the left path once and the right path twice: left-right-right mean that you get the six in the first roll, right-left-right means that you get the six in the second roll, right-right-left means that you get the six in the third roll.


In every case, the left turn has probability 1/6, and the right turn has probability 5/6. The probability of each combination is thus


\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} = \frac{5^2}{6^3}


And since there are three of these combinations, The answer is


3\frac{5^2}{6^3}


Fourth question:

Since the question suggests to use what we already achieved, let's do it: having at least one six is the complementary event of having no sixes at all. If an event has probability p, its complementary has probability 1-p. So, since the probability of no sixes is known, the probability of at least one six is


1 - \frac{5^3}{6^3}

4 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP ME!!!!!!
Sauron [17]

Answer:

50.24

Step-by-step explanation:

pi times r^2

7 0
3 years ago
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