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Firlakuza [10]
3 years ago
7

If a firm has high current and quick ratios, this always is a good indication that a firm is managing its liquidity position wel

l. True False
Business
1 answer:
ohaa [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Current and Quick ratio shows the liquidity position of the company. It shows that how much assets are available to company to pay off its liabilities if it becomes due in short period of time. High current and quick ratio make the company strong and it will have enough asset to deal with its obligation than with low current and quick ratio.

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Why have many nations chosen to use taxpayer dollars to subsidize primary, secondary, and higher education
Alona [7]

Answer and Explanation:

This is because education has a positive rate of return. Investment in Education is an investment in new knowledge which is beneficial to any country. These countries have subsidized these forms of education because they recognize that an investment in education is an investment in human capital. Which would likely increase future productivity and ability to earn money.

Education is very beneficial to the individual who gets it, but a country where it's citizens have a good level of education benefits everyone positively.

1. Better health outcomes due to breakthroughs in research.

2. Reduction in Crime rates

3. Better environment

4. Also a better government

Are reasons for using taxpayers dollars to subsidize all these levels of education.

3 0
3 years ago
You have a portfolio that is invested 11 percent in Stock R, 56 percent in Stock S, and the remainder in Stock T. The beta of St
Kruka [31]

Answer:

The beta of stock T is 1.82

Explanation:

The portfolio beta is made up of the weighted average of the individual stock betas in the portfolio.

The formula for portfolio beta is,

Portfolio beta = wA * beta of A + wB * beta of B + ... + wX * beta of X

The weight of stock T in the portfolio is = 1 - (0.11 + 0.56)   = 0.33 or 33%

Let beta of Stock T be x. The beta of Stock T is:

1.47 = 0.11 * 0.84  +  0.56 * 1.39  +  0.33 * x

1.47 = 0.0924 + 0.7784 + 0.33x

1.47 - 0.0924 - 0.7784 = 0.33x

0.5992 / 0.33 = x

x = 1.815 rounded off to 1.82

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An adjusting entry that increases an asset and increases a revenue is known as a(n):
quester [9]

<u>Answer:</u>

<em>An adjusting entry that increases an asset and increases a revenue is known as Accrued Revenue.</em>

<u>Explanation:</u>

when an organization has earned income yet hasn't yet gotten money or recorded a sum receivable For the<em> situation of gathered incomes</em>, we get money after we earned the income and recorded an advantage.

The modifying section for a collected income consistently incorporates a charge to an advantage account (increment a benefit) and an a worthy representative for an<em> income account (increment an income).</em>

7 0
3 years ago
State the following statement is True or False, and explain why. Thor who lives in Montana purchased a car produced in Japan for
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

false

His purchase left GDP unchanged

Consumption of non durables would increase.

Also, net export would decrease.

these effects would cancel out

Explanation:

Gross domestic product is the total sum of final goods and services produced in an economy within a given period which is usually a year

GDP calculated using the expenditure approach = Consumption spending by households + Investment spending by businesses + Government spending + Net export

Net export = exports – imports

3 0
3 years ago
Accessory Industries has 2 million shares of common stock outstanding, 1 million shares of preferred stock outstanding, and 100
Natalija [7]

Answer:

Equity is 0.29

Debt is 0.64

Preferred stock 0.07

Explanation:

WACC=Ke*E/V+Kd*D/V*(1-t)*Kp*P/V

However, the requirements of the question is weights of the bonds,equity and preferred stock which are E/V,D/V and P/V respectively

E is the value of equity=2,000,000*$22=$44,000,000

D is the value of debt =100,000*$1000*96%=$96,000,000

P is the value of prefered stock=1,000,000*$10.50=$10,500,000

Total firm's finance(V)                                                   $150,500,000

E/V=$44,000,0000/$150,500,000=0.29

D/V=$96,000,0000/$150,500,000=0.64

p/v=$10,500,000/$150,500,000=0.07

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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