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Sladkaya [172]
4 years ago
9

Pie over 3 is the reference angle for

Mathematics
1 answer:
Orlov [11]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:    \frac{\pi }{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

<em><u>Let's find out for which angle   could  </u></em>\frac{\pi }{3}<em><u>  be the Reference angle.</u></em>

For this exercise it is important to remember the definition of "Reference angle".

A "Reference angle is defined" as the smallest angle that is measure between the terminal side of an angle and the x-axis.

In this case, you have the following Reference angle provided in the exercise:

\frac{\pi }{3}

It is important to know that:

1. If the angle \beta is in the First Quadrant, then the reference angle and \beta are equal

2.  If the angle \beta is in the Second Quadrant, then the reference angle is:

\pi -\beta

3. If the angle \beta is in the Third Quadrant, then the reference angle is:

\beta -\pi

4.  If the angle \beta is in the Fourth Quadrant, then the reference angle is:

2\pi  -\beta

By definition, the angle  \frac{\pi }{3} is in the First Quadrant, therefore, you can say  that  

   \frac{\pi }{3}

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If a number is divisible by 5, 6, and 7, 

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8 0
3 years ago
In a game called taxation and evasion, a player rolls a pair of dice. if on any turn the sum is 7, 11, or 12, the player gets au
bezimeni [28]

The probability that she gets audited no more than 2 times is 0.896482...

As, a pair of dice are rolling here, so the number of total possible outcome = (6×6) = 36

For Sum = 7 , the favorable outcomes are: (1,6) (2,5) (3,4) (4,3) (5,2) and (6,1)

For Sum = 11 , the favorable outcomes are: (5,6) and (6,5)

For Sum = 12 , the favorable outcome is: (6,6)

Probability = (Number of favorable outcomes)÷(Number of total outcomes)

So, P(7)= \frac{6}{36} =\frac{1}{6}

P(11) = \frac{2}{36} = \frac{1}{18}

P(12) = \frac{1}{36}

P( 7 or 11 or 12) = \frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{18}+\frac{1}{36} = \frac{6+2+1}{36}=\frac{9}{36} = \frac{1}{4}

Here the total number of trials = 5 and the probability of getting audited = \frac{1}{4}

According the binomial distribution formula:

P(X) = (ⁿCₓ )(P)ˣ (1-P)ⁿ⁻ˣ

where P(X) is the probability of x successes out of n trials

Here, n= 5 and P = 1/4 and we need to find the probability of getting audited no more than 2 times. This means she can gets audited 0, 1 or 2 times.

So,

P(X=0)+P(X=1) +P(X=2)\\\\= [^5C^0 (\frac{1}{4})^0 (1-\frac{1}{4})^5^-^0 ]+[^5C^1 (\frac{1}{4})^1 (\frac{3}{4})^5^-^1]+[^5C^2 (\frac{1}{4})^2 (\frac{3}{4})^5^-^2]\\\\=  (\frac{3}{4})^5+ (5) (\frac{1}{4}) (\frac{3}{4})^4  +(10)(\frac{1}{4})^2 (\frac{3}{4})^3\\\\=0.237304... +0.395507...+0.263671...\\\\ = 0.896482...

So, the probability that she gets audited no more than 2 times is 0.896482...

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