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Natali5045456 [20]
3 years ago
7

What is 28,000 have in common with 27,000

Mathematics
2 answers:
ratelena [41]3 years ago
8 0
They are both in the ten thousands place
xeze [42]3 years ago
6 0
They both have 3 zeros and into the tens place
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For a triangle, m<1 =75 and m<3 =40 what does m<2 =?​
VladimirAG [237]

Answer:

m<2 = 65

Step-by-step explanation:

The measures of angles 1 and 3 should be added together resulting in 115 degrees, and all triangles equal 180 degrees. Therefore, to find m<2, you have to subtract 115 from 180 resulting in a measure of 65 degrees.

7 0
3 years ago
15 pts. Prove that the function f from R to (0, oo) is bijective if - f(x)=x2 if r- Hint: each piece of the function helps to "c
solniwko [45]

Answer with explanation:

Given the function f from R  to (0,\infty)

f: R\rightarrow(0,\infty)

-f(x)=x^2

To prove that  the function is objective from R to  (0,\infty)

Proof:

f:(0,\infty )\rightarrow(0,\infty)

When we prove the function is bijective then we proves that function is one-one and onto.

First we prove that function is one-one

Let f(x_1)=f(x_2)

(x_1)^2=(x_2)^2

Cancel power on both side then we get

x_1=x_2

Hence, the function is one-one on domain [tex[(0,\infty)[/tex].

Now , we prove that function is onto function.

Let - f(x)=y

Then we get y=x^2

x=\sqrt y

The value of y is taken from (0,\infty)

Therefore, we can find pre image  for every value of y.

Hence, the function is onto function on domain (0,\infty)

Therefore, the given f:R\rightarrow(0.\infty) is bijective function on (0,\infty) not on  whole domain  R .

Hence, proved.

3 0
3 years ago
A project has an initial cost of $60,000, expected net cash inflows of $14,000 per year for 9 years, and a cost of capital of 14
vredina [299]

Answer:

74

Step-by-step explanation:

60,000 + 14,000

ANS 14%

ANSWER: 74

6 0
3 years ago
Helen rolls a dice and flips a coin.<br> Calculate the probability that she will get a 4 and a tail.
Rom4ik [11]

Answer:

1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that Helen will roll a 4 is 1/6 the probability that she will get tails is 1/2. Multiply those two events together to find the probability of P(A and B)

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If it is now 5:00 AM, what time will it be in 1000 hours
VikaD [51]

Answer:

9:00pm

Step-by-step explanation:

If now is 5:00 am

After 1000hrs

24hrs makes a day

1000hrs = 1000/24 = 41 days remainder 16hrs

Therefore 5:00 + 16 hrs = 2100 hr

= 9:00pm

I hope this was helpful, please mark as brainliest

5 0
3 years ago
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